PENGETAHUAN UMUM
Untuk soal nomor 1 sampai dengan nomor 5, pilihlah satu jawaban yang paling tepat
1.
Undang-undang pemerintah daerah yang pertama berlaku di Indonesia setelah zaman
kemerdekaan yang dikeluarkan pada tanggal 23 Nopember 1945 adalah:
A.
UU No. 1 tahun 1945
B.
UU No. 2 tahun 1945
C.
UU No. 3 tahun 1945
D.
UU No. 4 tahun 1945
E.
UU No. 5 tahun 1945
2.
Agama dapat dilihat sebagai salah satu sumber nilai yang ada dalam masyarakat, seperti yang
dapat kita lihat dalam studi Max Weber mengenai sekte Calvinisme, yang berarti bahwa:
A.
Agama satu-satunya sumber nilai yang dipedomani masyarakat
B.
Agama adalah sesuatu yang pantas dan berharga
C.
Agama dapat mempengaruhi perilaku orang
D.
Manusia berhasrat menguasai alam
E.
Tanpa agama, gambaran tentang apa yang diinginkan tidak mungkin ada
3. Pada APBN tahun 1999/2000 terdapat uraian sumber pendapatan dan belanja negara seperti:
1.
Hibah
2.
Pembayaran bungan uang
3.
Pajak perdagangan internasional
4. Bagian pemerintah atas laba BUMN
Dari uraian tersebut, yang termasuk sumber pendapatan negara adalah ……
…
A.
1, 2, 3, dan 4
B.
1, 3, dan 4
C.
1, 2, dan 3
D.
2, 3 dan 4
E.
1 dan 2
4.
Istilah Pancasila pertama kali dikemukakan oleh:
A.
Mr. Muhammad Yamin pada tanggal 29 Mei 1945 dalam sidang BPUPKI
B.
Mr. Muhammad Yamin pada tanggal 01 Juni 1945 dalam sidang BPUPKI
C.
Ir. Soekarno pada tanggal 29 Mei 1945 dalam sidang BPUPKI
D.
Ir. Soekarno pada tanggal 01 Juni 1945 dalam sidang BPUPKI
E.
Ir. Soekarno pada tanggal 01 Juni 1945 dalam sidang PPKI
5.
Negara-negara barat seperti Inggris dan Amerika Serikat mengenal doktrin politik luar negeri
yang bercirikan:
A.
Democratic peace, Good Governance, Ethical Foreign policy
B.
Democratic peace, Ethical Foreign policy, Humanitarian Intervention
C.
Good Governance, Human Right, Humanitarian Intervention
D.
Ethical Foreign policy, Good Governance, Human Right
E.
Humanitarian Intervention, Democratic peace, Good Governance
1
Untuk soal nomor 6 sampai dengan nomor 17, pilihlah jawaban yang benar dengan menggunakan
petunjuk di bawah ini:
A.
Jika jawaban 1, 2 dan 3 benar.
B.
Jika jawaban 1 dan 3 benar
C.
Jika jawaban 2 dan 4 benar
D.
Jika jawaban hanya 4 yang benar
E.
Jika jawaban semuanya benar
6.
Prinsip-prinsip yang terkandung dalam Demokrasi Pancasila adalah:
1.
Pemerintah berdasar atas hukum
2.
Peradilan yang bebas dan merdeka dari pengaruh kekuasaan legislative
3.
Prinsip multi partai
4.
Sistem pemerintahan parlementer
7.
Kewenangan Provinsi sebagai Daerah Otonomi sebagaimana diatur dalam Pasal 3 Peraturan
Pemerintah Nomor 25 tahun 2001, mencakup kewenangan diantaranya:
1.
Kewenangan dalam bidang pemerintahan yang bersifat lintas Kabupaten atau Kota
2.
Pelaksanaan kewenangan yang tidak atau belum dapat dilaksanakan oleh Kabupaten atau
Kota
3.
Kewenangan dalam bidang pemerintahan tertentu lainnya
4.
Kewenangan di luar kewenangan pemerintah pusat
8.
Berkaitan dengan konsep perdagangan internasional dewasa ini, Negara-negara di dunia dibagi
berdasarkan wilayah untuk mendukung perdagangan dunia. Indonesia sebagai salah satu
Negara anggota ASEAN termasuk dalam kelompok:
1.
APEC
2.
NAFTA
3.
AFTA
4.
MEE
9.
Sebagai bentuk hubungan pusat dan daerah berdasarkan UU No. 32 Th. 2004, Pemerintah Pusat
memungkinkan untuk memberikan sanksi kepada daerah dalam bentuk:
1.
Pembatalan pengangkatan pejabat
2.
Penangguhan gaji tunjangan pejabat public
3.
Penangguhan berlakunya Perda
4.
Pengurangan dana alokasi khusus
10. Sikap chauvinistic bertentangan dengan ajaran Pancasila, terutama sila :
1.
Kelima
2.
Kedua
3.
Keempat
4.
Ketiga
2
11. Pada Hari Proklamasi tanggal 17 Agustus 1959, Presiden Soekarno menyampaikan Pidato yang
diberi Judul “Penemuan Kembali Revolusi Kita” atau biasa disebut Manifesto Politik (Manipol),
yang intinya adalah:
1.
UUD 1945
2.
Sosialisme Indonesia
3.
Demokrasi Terpimpin
4.
Ekonomi Terpimpin
12. Ciri-ciri sistem ekonomi kapitalis, adalah:
1.
Penjamin atas hak milik perseorangan
2.
Pemberian kebebasan penuh
3.
Persaingan bebas
4.
Pembatasan peran Negara dalam aktivitas ekonomi
13. Yang termasuk peran koperasi terhadap peningkatan kemakmuran rakyat adalah:
1.
Menciptakan dan memperluas lapangan pekerjaan
2.
Penyelenggara kehidupan ekonomi secara demokratis
3.
Menciptakan pelayanan umum dan kesejahteraan masyarakat
4.
Menumbuhkan investor menanamkan modalnya
14. Sejak Pemerintah Indonesia mengubah kebijakan Kurs, yang sebelumnya “mengikat”
di era
pemerintahan Soeharto, kini kebijakan Kurs Indonesia telah mengalami perubahan yang cukup
signifikan terhadap pembangunan nasional. Kebijakan Kurs yang berlaku saat ini di Indonesia
adalah ……
1.
Sistem ekonomi terpimpin
2.
Sistem ekonomi pasar
3.
Sistem mata uang jangkar
4.
Sistem Kurs mengambang
15. Tokoh yang ikut merumuskan Pancasila sebagai dasar Negara adalah …
1.
Dr. K.R.T. Radjiman Wedyoningrat
2.
Mr. Mohammad Yamin
3.
Drs. Mohammad Hatta
4.
Ir. Soekarno
16. Dalam kehidupan masyarakat antara suku bangsa yang satu dengan yang lainnya terdapat
perbedaan. Perbedaan itu disebabkan oleh beberapa hal sebagai berikut, kecuali:
1.
Keadaan geografis yang berbeda
2.
Agama yang berbeda
3.
Latar belakang sejarah yang berbeda
4.
Sistem kepercayaan yang berbeda
17. Nilai dasar wawasan kebangsaan yang terwujud dalam persatuan dan kesatuan bangsa memiliki
dimensi manusia yang bersifat mendasar dan fundamental, yaitu:
1.
Cinta tanah air dan bangsa
2.
Demokrasi atau kedaulatan rakyat
3.
Masyarakat adil dan makmur
4.
Kesetiakawanan social
3
Untuk soal nomor 18 sampai dengan nomor 39 pilihlah jawaban yang benar dengan menggunakan
petunjuk di bawah ini:
A.
Jika pernyataan pertama benar dan pernyataan kedua benar dan keduanya menunjukkan
hubungan sebab akibat
B.
Jika pernyataan pertama dan pernyataan kedua benar tetapi keduanya tidak menunjukkan
hubungan sebab akibat
C.
Jika pernyataan pertama benar dan pernyataan kedua salah
D.
Jika pernyataan pertama salah dan pernyataan kedua benar
E.
Jika pernyataan pertama dan kedua salah
18. Keberadaan Dewan Perwakilan Daerah (DPD) sangat diperlukan dan secara tegas terdapat
dalam UUD 1945 hasil amandemen kedua.
SEBAB
Anggota DPR selama ini dipandang kurang bertanggung jawab dalam memperhatikan
kepentingan daerah.
19. Pemerintah saat ini semakin mendapat tekanan untuk menyelesaikan semua permasalahan
hukum
SEBAB
Kekuasaan pemerintah dalam bidang yudikatif menurut UUD 1945 pasca amandemen semakin
dibatasi
20. Produk Domestik Bruto (PDB) di negara-negara sedang berkembang umumnya lebih besar dari
pada Produk Nasional Brutonya (PNB)
SEBAB
Dalam menghitung GNP dengan cara/metode produksi, yang dihitung adalah nilai tambah tiap
industri/produksi.
21. Pemerintah Jepang
mendorong terbentuknya BPUPKI sebagai langkah awal persiapan
kemerdekaan Indonesia
SEBAB
Jepang tidak ingin Indonesia kembali lagi jatuh ke tangan pemerintah Kolonial Belanda
22. Hak asasi manusia ialah hak-hak yang berhubungan dengan kebutuhan manusia, baik yang
bersifat lahiriah maupun rohaniah.
SEBAB
Kebutuhan rohaniah dan lahiriah seringkali diingkari oleh Negara
23. MPR mengeluarkan Ketetapan MPR RI No. III/MPR/2000 tentang pemisahan TNI dan POLRI
SEBAB
POLRI terkadang dilibatkan dalam tugas TNI seperti tugas perdamaian.
24. Politik luar negeri bebas dan aktif Indonesia bukanlah suatu politik netralisme
SEBAB
Politik bebas dan aktif senantiasa diarahkan untuk menempatkan Indonesia pada posisi obyek
dan bukan sebagai subyek dalam pergolakan politik internasional
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25. Pemilihan Kepala Daerah secara langsung pada banyak daerah ditakutkan akan menimbulkan
konflik yang bersifat vertikal
SEBAB
Para kontestan pemilu disinyalir masih banyak yang menggunakan isu-isu yang sensitif yang
dapat menimbulkan konflik SARA
26. Kekuasaan presiden tidak terbatas
SEBAB
Presiden Republik Indonesia sebagai lembaga eksekutif berkedudukan sebagai Kepala
Pemerintahan dan Kepala Negara
27. Presiden member grasi dan rehabilitasi menurut hasil amandemen kedua UUD 1945 adalah
dengan memperhatikan pertimbangan Mahkamah Agung
SEBAB
Presiden perlu dibantu lembaga lain untuk bertanggung jawab dalam hal pemberian grasi dan
rehabilitasi
28. Manajemen Kepegawaian menurut UU
No. 32 Tahun 2004 tentang Pemerintah Daerah
menempatkan Gubernur, Bupati/Walikota sebagai pejabat Pembina Kepegawaian
SEBAB
Gubernur dan Bupati/Walikota merupakan jabatan politik di daerah
29. Pada tahun 1971 dalam
KTT ASEAN II di Kualalumpur, Negara-negara di kawasan ASEAN
menyatakan bahwa wilayahnya merupakan Zone of peace, freedom and neutrality. Keputusan
tersebut sangat tepat dalam konteks perang dingin saat itu.
SEBAB
Negara-negara di kawasan ASEAN tak ingin mengalami penjajahan dalam bentuk apapun.
30. Kebijakan
moneter adalah kebijaksanaan pemerintah yang ditujukan untuk mengatur
pengeluaran pemerintah
SEBAB
Kebijakan moneter dapat dijalankan dengan mengatur dan merubah tingkat cadangan minimum
bank-bank komersial
31. Penjelasan Undang-Undang Dasar 1945 menyebutkan bahwa di samping hukum dasar tertulis,
berlaku pula hukum dasar yang tidak tertulis
SEBAB
Hukum dasar tertulis dan hukum dasar tidak tertulis merupakan sumber dari segala sumber
hukum yang berlaku di Indonesia
32. Sistem
pemerintahan daerah pada zaman Presiden Soeharto masih menggunakan sistem
sentralisasi
SEBAB
Sistem sentralisasi hanya tepat digunakan dalam Negara kesatuan seperti Indonesia
5
33. Semua anggota
DPRD memiliki kecakapan yang sama terhadap bidang tugas maupun
pengelompokan tugas.
SEBAB
Anggota DPRD harus mampu membuat rancangan peraturan daerah, mengadakan pengawasan,
mengadakan penyelidikan dan mengajukan pernyataan pendapat.
34. Teori keunggulan komparatif menjelaskan bahwa semua negara bias memetik manfaat dengan
melakukan spesialisasi
SEBAB
Prinsip keunggulan komparatif menjelaskan mengapa Negara memproduksi berbagai macam
komoditi
35. Konstitusi Indonesia mengamanatkan bahwa hak asasi manusia tidak dapat dikurangi dalam
keadaan apapun.
SEBAB
Pasal 281 ayat (1) Undang-undang Dasar Negara Republik Indonesia Tahun 1945
mengamanatkan bahwa hak untuk hidup, hak untuk tidak disiksa, hak untuk tidak diperbudak,
hak untuk diakui sebagai pribadi di hadapan hukum, dan hak untuk tidak dituntut atas dasar
hukum yang berlaku surut adalah hak asasi manusia yang tidak dapat dikurangi dalam keadaan
apapun.
36. Sistem nilai tukar yang digunakan Pemerintah Indonesia pasca krisis moneter 1997/1998 adalah
sistem kurs mengambang terkendali
SEBAB
Sistem kurs mengambang terkendali ditentukan oleh penawaran & permintaan nilai tukar uang
sampai terjadi keseimbangan di pasar valuta asing.
37. Koperasi di Indonesia menjadi sendi perekonomian Negara
SEBAB
Ciri masyarakat Indonesia adalah masyarakat yang bergotong royong
38. Asas nonretroaktif tidak berlaku dalam hukum pidana
SEBAB
Dalam hukum pidana berlaku asas legalitas
39. Di
sejumlah daerah terjadi kasus pilkada yang menunjukkan bahwa tingkat kedewasaan
masyarakat dalam berdemokrasi belum matang.
SEBAB
Fungsi pendidikan politik yang diperankan oleh partai politik belum berjalan efektif sebagai
akibat sistem pendidikan nasional yang tidak berbasis kompetensi
6
Untuk soal nomor 40 sampai dengan nomor 100, pilihlah satu jawaban yang paling tepat
TES BAKAT SKOLASTIK
40. KORAN : MAJALAH : BULETIN = ………… : ………… : …………
A. Restoran : Hotel : Losmen
B. Cat : Kuas : Lukisan
C. Sandal : Sepatu : Kaos
D. Air : Roti : Singkong
E. Bus : Kereta Api : Delman
41. CATATAN : NOTASI = PERINGKAT : ………
A. Pangkat
B. Level
C. Peringkat
D. Peningkatan
E. Urutan
42. RENCANA : PELAKSANAAN : EVALUASI
A. Cita-cita : Tindakan : Renungan
B. Cita-cita : Perjuangan : Sukses
C. Proposal : Persetujuan : Program
D. Masa lalu : Masa sekarang : Masa depan
E. Awal : Akhir : Tengah
Pemahaman Wacana
Dalam evolusi budaya, penghargaan manusia terhadap badannya bergerak dari bawah ke atas.
“Bagian bawah badan kita” menurut Nietzsche adalah yang menghambat jalannya mutasi dari otak.
Perlu diketahui bahwa perasaan dan nurani juga bersemayam di otak, meskipun biasa kita katakana
bahwa perasaan berasal dari hati (dalam arti non-anatomis). Manusia senantiasa harus selalu berusaha
memadukan antara pikiran yang bersemayam di otak dengan perasaan yang berasal dari hati untuk
menjadi lebih cerdas, lebih arif dan lebih beradab.
Pangkal dari segala kesulitan yang dihadapi manusia sekarang, adalah karena banyaknya
manusia yang bermuka dua. Pada hakekatnya mereka adalah avidya (ignorance), kurang cerdas, kurang
beradab atau kurang berpendidikan, yang secara eufemistis disebut berpendidikan beda. Kalau disimak,
sebenarnya Negara kita memperlihatkan gejala-gejala belum berkompeten untuk merdeka. Pada awal
kemerdekaan hal itu tidak kentara, karena interaksi global masih kurang dan pengaruh internasional
belum begitu terasa, walaupun pendiri-pendiri bangsa kita sadar akan hal itu, dan berusaha
mencerdaskan bangsa ini dengan sekuat tenaga.
Sangat disayangkan bahwa usaha dari pendiri-pendiri bangsa ini tidak dilanjutkan dengan sekuat
tenaga seperti dulu, karena pemimpin-pemimpin kita pada saat ini tidak begitu peduli terhadap
kecerdasan dari rakyatnya. Rakyat yang sudah vidya sukar diperdaya dan berani beroposisi, sedangkan
yang avidya tidak kritis, tidak tahu hak-haknya dan tidak mau diberdayakan, sehingga para pemimpin
dapat berkuasa lebih lama.
Gejala-gejala avidya dapat kita lihat di sekitar kita, misalnya, ramai orang berbicara tentang
suatu masalah padahal mereka tidak tahu persoalan yang sebenarnya. Kekerasan dengan mudah dipakai
karena kosa kata untuk berargumentasi sudah habis. Hingar binger Pemilu baru kelihatan menarik kalau
7
sudah ada artis pendukung yang bernyanyi, bukan karena program politik partai yang menarik untuk
disimak.
Ironisnya adalah orang sudah tidak dapat lagi membedakan antara rasa keadilan dan
kecemburuan social. Sikap anti korupsi dianggap rasa cemburu akan kekayaan seseorang, selanjutnya
orang dengan mudah sekali diajak menyimpang dan melanggar hak-hak orang lain asalkan ada unsure
kekerasan dan imbalan yang ditawarkan.
Akhirnya avidya melahirkan wawasan sempit, yang menyebabkan timbulnya fanatisme, egoism,
etnosentrisme, intoleransi, dan tidak mau mendengar pendapat orang lain, hanya mendengar suara
sendiri.
Mudah-mudahan di masa yang akan dating upaya mencerdaskan kehidupan bangsa akan
dilanjutkan lagi dengan usaha yang keras. Kita harus berjihad melawan avidya, walaupun tanpa barisan
dan komando, dan rela berkorban demi bangsa dan Negara yang kita cintai ini.
43. Judul apakah yang tepat untuk tulisan di atas?
A. Jihad melawan avidya
B. Pencerdasan bangsa
C. Kesadaran beradab
D. Mensana in corpora sano
E. Gejala-gejala avidya
44. Secara tersirat gejala-gejala perilaku apakah yang cenderung menjadi suatu penyakit pada
sebagian orang yang dimaksudkan oleh penulis tersebut?
A. Avidya
B. Paranoid
C. Hysteria
D. Ignorance
E. Vidya
45. Menurut penulis, pokok dari segala kesulitan yang dihadapi oleh bangsa ini adalah, karena:
A. Kurang cerdas, kurang beradab, kurang berpendidikan
B. Menentang ketidakadilan
C. Tidak berdayanya orang avidya
D. Masyarakat yang vidya sukar dipercaya
E. Semua benar
46. 166, 84, 43, 22 ½, ………
A. 11 ½
B. 12 ½
C. 11
D. 12
E. 9
47. ……, ……, 20, 12, 24, 16, 28, 24
A. 8 dan 16
B. 20 dan 28
C. 32 dan 24
D. 9 dan 3
E. 18 dan 10
8
48. Tiga orang diberi tugas. Masing-masing dari mereka dibayar Rp. 75,- Rp. 100,- Rp. 125,- tiap
jamnya. Mereka menerima Rp. 63.000,- setelah menyelesaikan tugas tersebut. Bila mereka
bekerja 7 jam dalam sehari, berapa minggukah yang diperlukan untuk menyelesaikan tugas
tersebut? (1 minggu = 6 hari)
A. 4 minggu
B. 5 minggu
C. 6 minggu
D. 7 minggu
E. 8 minggu
49. Jika sisi bujur sangkar sama dengan alas segitiga, maka luas bangungan di bawah ini adalah:
A. A2
B. 5/2 a2
C. 4/3 a2
D. 3/2 a2 a
E. 5/4 a2
aa
50. Jika jari-jari lingkaran A panjangnya setengah lingkaran B, maka berapa persenkah luas lingkaran
B dari luas lingkaran A? (diketahui luas lingkaran = pr2)
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 36%
D. 40%
E. 50%
51. Sebagian A adalah N. N bukan U. Sebagian A bukan B adalah U. Semua N, B, dan U adalah A; jadi:
A. Semua A adalah U bukan B
B. Semua A adalah N bukan U
C. Semua A bukan N bukan B
D. Sebagian A bukan U, bukan B, bukan N
E. Sebagian A adalah U dan B, bukan N
52. 7 x 7,3 + 6 x 4.6 – 15 x 2.5 = ………
A. 286,9
B. 285,1
C. 200,32
D. 764
E. 355,6
53. Dua buah baja yang berpenampang lingkaran masing-masing mempunyai jari-jari 1 ½ cm dan
0,625 cm. Berapakah beda diameter antara kedua penampang tersebut?
A. 0,750 cm
B. 1,750 cm
C. 0,875 cm
D. 1,550 cm
E. 0,775 cm
9
54. Semua penyelam adalah perenang, sementara penyelam adalah pelaut,
A. Sementara pelaut adalah perenang
B. Sementara perenang bukan penyelam
C. Semua pelaut adalah perenang
D. Sementara penyelam bukan pelaut
E. Sementara penyelam bukan perenang
55. Bila A = B, maka A tidak sama dengan C. Bila P = A, maka:
A. Bila P = C, maka P = B
B. Bila P = C, maka P tidak sama dengan A
C. Bila P = C, maka P tidak sama dengan B
D. Bila P = C, maka P = AB
E. Tidak ada yang benar
56. Semua yang bergelar Ir., hidup dengan makmur. Sebagian yang bergelar Ir. melakukan kegiatan
wirausaha
A. Semua wirausahawan yang bergelar Ir.
B. Semua wirausahawan makmur bergelar Ir.
C. Semua wirausahawan yang hidupnya makmur bergelar Ir.
D. Semua Ir. yang hidupnya makmur adalah wirausahawan
E. Semua Ir. yang wirausahawan hidup dengan makmur
57. Jika pernyataan: “Semua dokter adalah laki-laki” adalah salah, maka …
A. Sementara dokter adalah laki-laki
B. Sementara laki-laki adalah bukan dokter
C. Sementara dokter adalah bukan laki-laki
D. Tidak ada dokter yang bukan laki-laki
E. Tidak ada kesimpulan yang benar
58. Sebagian pejabat mempunyai kedudukan mulia. Semua yang mempunyai kedudukan mulia bisa
mendatangkan harta
A. Sebagian pejabat tidak mempunyai kedudukan mulia
B. Sebagian yang bisa mendatangkan harta adalah pejabat
C. Sebagian yang mempunyai kedudukan mulia adalah pejabat
D. Sebagian pejabat tidak bias mendatangkan harta
E. Semua pejabat mempunyai kedudukan mulia
59. Mahasiswa yang boleh ikut ujian adalah yang hadir minimal 75% dari hari kuliah. Yusuf
membolos 10% hari kuliah dan tidak masuk karena sakit sebanyak 20% dari hari kuliah.
A. Yusuf masih boleh ujian karena membolosnya masih di bawah 25%
B. Untuk dapat ujian, mahasiswa harus benar-benar rajin
C. Yusuf adalah mahasiswa rajin tapi sering sakit-sakitan
D. Sesuai dengan peraturan, Yusuf tidak boleh ikut ujian
E. Mahasiswa yang sakit-sakitan boleh ikut ujian
10
60. Bila P>XQ>YR>Z, sedangkan P>Q>R dan X>Y>Z, maka …
A. R > X – Q > XY
B. Z < P – Y > R – X > Q
C. Z < P – Y < R – X < Q
D. P > Y > Z – Z < Q < P
E. R > X – Q > XZ
61. Semua siswa SMA 5 pandai
Sebagian besar siswa SMA 5 berasal dari keluarga kaya
A. Semua siswa yang pandai adalah siswa SMA 5
B. Sebagian besar siswa SMA 5 kaya dan pandai
C. Sebagian besar siswa yang kaya dan pandai adalah siswa SMA 5
D. Sebagian siswa SMA 5 kaya dan kurang pandai
E. Semua siswa SMA 5 kaya dan pandai
62. Sebagian A adalah N. N bukan U. Sebagian A bukan B adalah U. Semua N, B, dan U adalah A; jadi:
A. Semua A adalah U bukan B
B. Semua A adalah N bukan U
C. Semua A bukan N bukan B
D. Sebagian A bukan U, bukan B, bukan N
E. Sebagian A adalah U dan B, bukan N
Ada 4 roda bergigi, yaitu A, B, C, dan D. Roda A dihubungkan dengan roda C, sedangkan roda C memutar
roda B, dan roda B dihubungkan dengan roda D. Roda A mempunyai 48 gigi, Roda B mempunyai 30 gigi,
sedangkan roda C dan D hanya mempunyai 6 gigi.
63. Bila roda A berputar searah dengan jarum jam sebanyak 50 rotasi per menit (RPM), dalam
berapa Rpm roda B berputar?
A. 50 Rpm
B. 250 Rpm
C. 400 Rpm
D. 800 Rpm
E. 1200 Rpm
64. Rasio dan kecepatan rotasi dari roda D relative pada roda C adalah:
A. 1 : 5
B. 5 : 1
C. 5 : 8
D. 5 : 10
E. 8 : 1
65. Jika roda A dan roda B mempunyai gigi yang sama dan roda C serta D mempunyai sebanyak
setengah kali gigi A, bila gigi D berputar pada kecepatan 100 Rpm, berapakah kecepatan putaran
roda B?
A. 50 Rpm
B. 100 Rpm
C. 200 Rpm
D. 400 Rpm
E. 500 Rpm
11
SKALA KEMATANGAN
66. Dalam suatu rapat pimpinan, ada sejawat saya yang tidak sependapat dengan usulan saya. Sikap
saya adalah ………
A.
Dengan senang hati mempertimbangkan pendapat orang tersebut
B.
Bersikeras agar usulan saya yang diterima
C.
Meninggalkan ruang rapat dan tidak kembali lagi
D.
Mempertimbangkan pendapat tersebut dengan melihat siapa orangnya
E.
Tetap beranggapan bahwa perbedaan pendapat adalah hal yang lumrah
67. Saya baru saja dimutasikan ke unit lain yang sama sekali baru bagi saya. Sikap saya adalah …
A.
Berusaha memahami mekanisme kerja unit melalui arsip dan aturan kebijakan
B.
Jarang masuk karena belum jelas apa yang harus dikerjakan
C.
Duduk-duduk saja sambil menunggu perintah atasan
D.
Berusaha mempelajari dan memahami mekanisme kerja unit melalui rekan sejawat
E.
Mengamati proses pekerjaan yang dilakukan rekan sejawat
68. Sikap
saya terhadap perubahan-perubahan, ide-ide baru dan cara-cara baru dalam
melaksanakan suatu pekerjaan adalah…
A.
Stabilitas dalam bekerja lebih penting
B.
Perubahan adalah sesuatu yang pasti
C.
Perubahan bukan jaminan keberhasilan pekerjaan
D.
Dengan adanya perubahan, kondisi kerja pasti lebih baik
E.
Keberhasilan pekerjaan tergantung jenis perubahan, ide, dan cara-cara baru tersebut
69. Saya diutus mengikuti suatu diklat.
Oleh panitia penyelenggara saya ditempatkan sekamar
dengan orang yang tidak saya kenal yang berasal dari kota lain. Sikap saya adalah…
A.
Mengajukan keberatan tetapi akhirnya menerima aturan panitia
B.
Protes keran dan minta ditempatkan sendiri saja
C.
Mengajukan keberatan dan minta ditempatkan dengan minimal orang yang dikenal
D.
Menerima aturan panitia dan berusaha mengenal dan memahami teman sekamar
E.
Menerima aturan panitia
70. Terjadi pergantian pimpinan di unit kerja saya. Sikap saya adalah …
A.
Tidak peduli
B.
Berusaha mengenal dan memahami visi dan misi pimpinan baru
C.
Tidak berusaha mendekati pimpinan baru karena takut dicap penjilat
D.
Berusaha mengenal pribadi pimpinan baru
E.
Pergantian pimpinan itu sesuatu yang biasa
71. Draft laporan yang dibuat oleh tim kerja saya ditolak oleh atasan karena dianggap kurang visibel.
Sikap saya adalah …
A.
Segera melakukan perbaikan atas draft laporan dan mengajukan kembali
B.
Menyalahkan rekan sejawat yang sama-sama mengerjakannya
C.
Menerima penolakan tetapi tidak melakukan tindak lanjut
D.
Berusaha mencari alasan seperti sedikitnya waktu untuk mengerjakannya
E.
Menerima penolakan dan berusaha memperbaiki
12
72. Tetang perubahan yang terjadi dalam organisasi, pendapat saya adalah …
A.
Perubahan adalah sesuatu yang lumrah
B.
Menjaga stabilitas organisasi dengan sedapat mungkin menghindari perubahan
C.
Pegawai tidak boleh terlalu kreatif menciptakan perubahan
D.
Organisasi harus menjadi “learning organization”
E.
Setiap individu dalam organisasi harus terbiasa dengan perubahan
73. Saya menggunakan kendaraan dinas tanpa sepengetahuan Kepala Kendaraan pada Hari Libur.
Secara tidak sengaja saya menabrakkan kendaraan tersebut. Tindakan saya adalah:
A.
Diam-diam menyimpan kendaraan tersebut karena tidak seorang pegawaipun yang tahu
kalau saya menggunakannya
B.
Membawa kendaraan tersebut ke bengkel, melaporkan kejadian tersebut kepada pimpinan
serta menyerahkan segala keputusan kepada pimpinan
C.
Mencoba memperbaiki sendiri kendaraan tersebut
D.
Melaporkan kejadian tersebut kepada pimpinan dan siap menerima hukuman/petunjuk dari
pimpinan
E.
Membawa kendaraan tersebut ke bengkel atas biaya pribadi dan mengembalikannya
dengan diam-diam
74. Saya mendapat teguran langsung dari pimpinan atas kesalahan yang bukan hanya saya seorang
diri sebagai pelakunya. Reaksi saya adalah …
A.
Membantah secara tegas agar pada kesempatan lain pimpinan tidak semena-mena
menyalahkan
B.
Diam saja, karena membantah hanya akan menambah rumit permasalahan
C.
Menerima teguran tersebut dan mencoba menjadikannya sebagai pelajaran berharga, tetapi
tetap mengadukan pegawai lain yang turut bersalah agar saya tidak menjadi korban seorang
diri
D.
Membantah dan mengadukan pegawai lain yang juga bersalah agar mereka juga bisa belajar
dari kejadian ini
E.
Menerima teguran tersebut dan mecoba menjadikannya sebagai pelajaran berharga tanpa
perlu mengadukan pegawai lain yang turut bersalah
75. Dalam rapat staf dan pimpinan, pendapat saya dikritik keras oleh peserta rapat lainnya. Respon
saya adalah …
A.
Mencoba sekuat tenaga mempertahankan pendapat saya
B.
Menyerang semua peserta yang mengeritik pendapat saya
C.
Mencoba mempelajari kritikan tersebut dan berbalik mengkritik dengan tajam
D.
Menerima kritikan tersebut sebagai masukan
E.
Diam saja
76. Salah seorang
rekan kerja saya mendapat promosi sedangkan menurut penilaian saya,
kemampuannya tidak lebih baik dari saya. Respon saya adalah …
A.
Menggunakan berbagai cara agar dapat menggeserkan posisi rekan tersebut
B.
Bekerja lebih giat dan menunjukkan kinerja terbaik saya
C.
Menghadap pimpinan dan memprotes promosi tersebut
D.
Tetap bekerja seperti biasa
E.
Menerima keadaan tersebut tetapi tidak akan mengikuti perintah rekan tersebut
13
77. Dari sekian pegawai di kantor, saya merasa beban tugas terberat ada pada saya dan saya merasa
stress karena dikejar-kejar deadline. Respon saya adalah …
A.
Mengerjakan semua tugas dengan senang hati dan berusaha memenuhi target deadlin
B.
Hanya mengerjakan tugas yang saya senangi
C.
Mengkonsumsi obat suplemen agar mendongkrak tenaga saya untuk menyelesaikan semua
tugas
D.
Mengerjakan semua tugas sambil menggerutu dan marah-marah
E.
Mengerjakan semua tugas setengah-setengah saja, yang penting sudah dianggap
bertanggung-jawab
78. Ketika sedang melakukan presentasi, saya menerima pesan singkat (SMS) yang mengabarkan
bahwa anak saya diopname di rumah sakit. Reaksi saya adalah …
A.
Menghentikan presentasi dan langsung menuju rumah sakit
B.
Mencari tahu kondisi anak saya kemudian memutuskan apakah tetap presentasi atau ke
rumah sakit
C.
Membalas SMS dan melanjutkan presentasi
D.
Melanjutkan presentasi
E.
Menghentikan presentasi dan mencari tahu kondisi anak saya
79. Saya ditugaskan untuk memimpin tim kerja dengan batas waktu yang sangat ketat. Anggota tim
kerja memperlihatkan sikap tidak peduli dengan tugas yang diemban. Sikap saya adalah :
A.
Bekerja sendiri yang penting tugas selesai
B.
Mengancam mengeluarkan anggota yang tidak serius dari tim kerja
C.
Melaporkan mereka pada pimpinan agar diberi sanksi
D.
Membagi tugas secara adil dan memotivasi anggota untuk menyelesaikannya
E.
Menasehati mereka agar sadar akan penyelesaian tugas yang diembannya
80. Kerja keras dan cermat merupakan wujud upaya untuk menjadi pribadi yang bermanfaat bagi
organisasi. Berkaitan dengan hal tersebut, saya senang …
A.
Bekerja dengan standar hasil yang tinggi
B.
Pekerjaan yang menumbuhkan kreativitas baru
C.
Pekerjaan yang rutin
D.
Pekerjaan yang menantang
E.
Bekerja tanpa mengenal lelah dan pamrih
81. Setiap hari kerja saya masuk kantor paling cepat dibandingkan pegawai lainnya. Yang saya
lakukan setelah tiba adalah …
A.
Masuk ke ruangan dan membaca koran
B.
Santai di luar gedung kantor untuk menikmati udara pagi
C.
Masuk ke ruangan dan mengobrol dengan rekan sejawat
D.
Masuk ke ruangan dan membuat rencana kerja
E.
Masuk ke ruangan dan memulai pekerjaan yang tertunda kemarin
14
82. Saya
diminta untuk lembur kerja sedangkan saya sudah berjanji kepada anak saya untuk
mengantarnya ke pesta ulang tahun sahabatnya. Sikap saya adalah …
A.
Pulang dengan diam-diam, tanpa sepengetahuan pimpinan
B.
Berpura-pura sakit agar dapat diizinkan untuk segera pulang
C.
Menghubungi anak saya menjelaskan bahwa saya akan sedikit terlambat menemuinya
D.
Tinggal bekerja lembur
E.
Meminta izin pimpinan mengantar anak saya kemudian kembali ke kantor untuk bekerja
lembur
83. Bagi saya untuk menjadi pegawai negeri sipil yang sukses, saya harus melakukan …
A.
Mengikuti perintah dan arahan pimpinan secara loyal dan penuh kepatuhan
B.
Melakukan pekerjaan yang terbaik dengan standar kinerja yang tinggi
C.
Mengembangkan hal-hal baru yang belum pernah diciptakan sebelumnya
D.
Menciptakan hubungan baik dengan setiap orang, rekan kerja dan pimpinan
E.
Bekerja sesuai dengan ketentuan yang telah ditetapkan oleh pimpinan
84. Menurut saya, bekerja merupakan upaya untuk meraih keseksesan. Untuk itu upaya saya adalah
…
A.
Bekerja dengan cermat dan berusaha menjadi terbaik dan diakui
B.
Berusaha menyingkirkan orang yang saya anggap menghalangi upaya saya
C.
Bekerja sepenuh hati
D.
Bekerja sampai larut malam
E.
Bekerja berdasarkan kontrak kinerja
85. Saya ditawarkan oleh pimpinan untuk melanjutkan studi di provinsi lain atas biaya kantor. Saat
ini saya baru saja dikaruniai bayi kembar yang masih membutuhkan perhatian saya. Keputusan
saya adalah …
A.
Menolak tawaran tersebut
B.
Menerima tawaran tersebut dengan konsekuensi mengikutkan keluarga merupakan
tanggung jawab saya
C.
Menerima tawaran tersebut dengan permohonan agar keluarga dapat ikut saya dengan
tambahan biaya hidup
D.
Menolak tawaran tersebut namun mohon kebijakan pimpinan jika ada kesempatan lagi saya
dapat diikutkan
E.
Menerima tawaran tersebut dan dengan berat hati meninggalkan keluarga
86. Menurut saya, sepuluh tahun setelah saya diangkat sebagai PNS, saya akan menjadi …
A.
Pejabat struktural atau tenaga fungsional yang profesional dalam bidangnya
B.
Bukan PNS lagi
C.
PNS masih sebagai pelaksana di unit yang pertama kali saya diterima
D.
Belum tahu karena sepenuhnya tergantung pada nasib
E.
PNS masih sebagai pelaksana di unit lain yang sesuai dengan kompetensi saya
15
87. Saya ditugaskan pimpinan untuk menjadi notulen dalam rapat Badan Pertimbangan Jabatan dan
Kepangkatan. Respon saya adalah …
A.
Berusaha menghindari rekan yang membujuk untuk mengetahui hasil keputusan rapat
B.
Dengan bangga saya akan menceritakan kepada rekan sejawat saya hasil keputusan rapat
C.
Memberitahukan anggota keluarga tentang hasil keputusan rapat
D.
Memberitahu sahabat saya dikantor tentang hasil keputusan rapat
E.
Tidak akan membocorkan hasil keputusan rapat karena bukan wewenang saya
88. Ketika muncul suatu masalah dalam pekerjaan yang kebetulan ada kaitannya dengan hal-hal
yang menjadi kewajiban saya, maka saya …
A.
Mencari kambing hitam penyebab masalah
B.
Akan bertanggung jawab
C.
Membiarkan masalah tetap berlangsung
D.
Melihat dulu apakah saya sebagai sumber masalah
E.
Melihat sejauh mana apakah saya terlibat di dalamnya
89. Saya sedang mengerjakan pekerjaan kantor, yang harus selesai besok pagi.
Tiba-tiba teman
datang dengan wajah cemberut dan tampaknya ingin mengeluarkan isi hatinya kepada saya.
Atas kejadian itu saya …
A.
Memohon kepadanya untuk tidak mengganggu saya karena sedang sibuk
B.
Meninggalkan pekerjaan saya dan mendengarkan ceritanya dengan penuh perhatian
C.
Meninggalkan pekerjaan serta memberi berbagai alternatif penyelesaian
D.
Tetap mengerjakan sambil mendengarkan ceritanya
E.
Meneruskan pekerjaan dan berusaha untuk tidak memperdulikan keinginan teman saya
90. Saya
dipercayakan mengelola kegiatan yang belum dipublikasikan dan masih harus dijaga
keharasiaannya. Ketika saya berada di antara teman-teman dekat di kantor, saya …
A.
Suka menerima masukan demi masukan dalam rangka pengembangan tugas baru saya
B.
Membicarakan hal-hal lain yang tidak ada kaitannya dengan tugas baru saya
C.
Membatasi pembicaraan agar tidak menyangkut ke hal-hal tugas baru saya
D.
Akan merasa gelisah dan kurang senang bila mereka mulai membicarakan tugas baru saya
E.
Akan mengalihkan ke pembicaraan lain bila mereka sudah mulai menyinggung tugas baru
saya
91. Organisasi sedang mengalami permasalahan internal seputar manajemen keuangan. Pendapat
saya terhadap kondisi ini adalah …
A.
Saya akan menjaga kerahasiaan permasalahan yang terjadi dan mencoba memberikan
alternatif solusi kepada pimpinan
B.
Seharusnya pimpinan puncak dapat menindak tegas yang terlibat dalam masalah ini
C.
Tidak mempersoalkan masalah tersebut karena bukan bagian tugas saya
D.
Pastikan bahwa kepala keuangan bertanggungjawab penuh terhadap masalah ini
E.
Perlu membeberkan permasalah kepada seluruh jajaran organisasi
16
92. Kinerja organisasi berjalan cukup efisien, namun pimpinan terkesan mengontrol situasi dengan
sangat ketat. Sikap saya adalah …
A.
Tidak bertindak apapun, cukup dengan mengikuti jalannya arus
B.
Mengusahakan keterlibatan pegawai dalam pengambilan keputusan
C.
Mengabaikan saja
D.
Melakukan apa saya yang dapat dikerjakan utuk membuat pegawai merasa peting dan
dilibatkan
E.
Mengingatkan pentingnya batas waktu dan tugas kepada atasas
93. Pada akhir bulan, tagihan rekening telepon kantor mengalami lonjakan menjadi sebesar Rp.
12.000.000,- dari yang biasanya tidak pernah melebihi Rp. 5.000.000,-. Setelah dilakukan
pengecekan ternyata banyak nomor telepon yang dihubungi tidak memiliki hubungan kerja
dengan organisasi. Jajaran pimpinan kemudian memanggil semua pegawai untuk melakukan
pengecekan dan penyelesaian masalah tersebut. Sebenarnya saya termasuk pegawai yang
menggunakan telepon untuk urusan pribadi. Respon saya adalah …
A.
Berterus terang telah menggunakan fasilitas telepon di luar pekerjaan kantor
B.
Seharusnya organisasi menyelesaikan pembayaran saja karena anggaran masih tersedia
C.
Sebaiknya atasan bertanya kepada setiap pegawai untuk mengetahui siapa saja yang
menggunakan telepon di luar pekerjaan kantor
D.
Seharusnya organisasi tidak perlu membesar-besarkan masalah ini karena masih banyak hal
penting lainnya yang harus diselesaikan
E.
Jika pimpinan membuktikan bahwa saya menggunakan telepon untuk urusan pribadi, saya
akan mengundurkan diri
94. Saya mengajukan suatu usulan untuk atasan saya namun usulan tersebut menurut atasan saya
kurang tepat. Sikap saya adalah …
A.
Merasa sangat kecewa
B.
Mencoba mencari alternative usulan yang lain untuk diajukan lagi
C.
Merasa kecewa tetapi berusaha melupakan penolakan tersebut
D.
Tetap mencoba memberikan alas an dan pembenaran atas usulan tersebut sampai dapat
meyakinkan atasan saya
E.
Tidak merasa kecewa dan berusaha melupakan penolakan tersebut
95. Saya ditugaskan di front office untuk melayani tamu pimpinan. Pada saat pimpinan saya tidak
berada di tempat dan ada tamu pimpinan yang memerlukan keputusan segera, sikap saya
adalah …
A.
Mengambil keputusan tanpa petunjuk atasan selama tidak bertentangan dengan kebijakan
umum pimpinan
B.
Tidak berani mengambil keputusan tanpa petunjuk atasan saya
C.
Ragu-ragu dalam mengambil keputusan tanpa petunjuk atasan saya
D.
Menunda-nunda pengambilan keputusan tanpa petunjuk atasan saya
E.
Mengambil keputusan tanpa petunjuk atasan karena keadaan sangan mendesak
96. Dalam melaksanakan suatu tugas yang dipercayakan kepada saya, saya …
A.
Selalu mencari alternative lain agar tidak mengambil keputusan sendiri
B.
Tidak berani mengambil keputusan sendiri
C.
Selalu menunggu keputusan pimpinan
D.
Berani mengambil keputusan karena tugas tersebut telah dipercayakan kepada saya
E.
Menyadari bahwa keputusan pimpinan diperlukan jika keputusan tersebut diluar wewenang
saya
17
97. Atasan yang saya sukai adalah yang …
A.
Sangat disiplin dan selalu meminta saya menunggu keputusan yang diambilnya sebelum
suatu pekerjaan dilaksanakan
B.
Selalu menanyakan pendapat dan ide dari saya sebagai bahan masukan untuk suatu
pekerjaan yang dilakukannya
C.
Senantiasa mendelegasikan wewenangnya pada saya
D.
Tidak terlalu membantu saya menyelesaikan tugas, namun sebaliknya berharap saya
mampu menyelesaikan pekerjaan tanpa sering berkonsultasi kepadanya
E.
Selalu member petunjuk yang jelas atas pekerjaan yang akan saya kerjakan
98. Saya ingin rekan-rekan kerja saya melihat kualitas diri saya yang terbaik sebagai seorang yang …
A.
Inovatif dan kreatif
B.
Disiplin dan penurut
C.
Mampu beradaptasi dan ramah
D.
Dapat memutuskan sendiri dan realistis
E.
Percaya diri dan mandiri
99. Kondisi kerja yang paling saya harapkan adalah kondisi yang …
A.
Menghasilkan pendapatan tambahan bagi saya
B.
Menyediakan stabilitas pekerjaan kepada saya
C.
Memberikan kemungkinan promosi jabatan bagi saya
D.
Memberi kesempatan kepada saya untuk beraktualisasi diri
E.
Memotivasi saya untuk bekerja lebih giat
100.
Pimpinan kantor menggelar rapat kerja membahas penyusunan rencana kerja untuk
tahun anggaran depan. Setiap pegawai diharapkan mempersiapkan usulan untuk kegiatan tahun
depan. Respon saya adalah …
A.
Berminat mengajukan suatu ide kegiatan yang akan dilaksanakan meskipun nantinya ide
tersebut tidak diterima
B.
Tidak berminat sama sekali untuk mengajukan suatu ide kegiatan
C.
Akan mengajukan suatu ide kegiatan jika diminta oleh pimpinan
D.
Mungkin berminat untuk mengajukan suatu ide kegiatan yang akan dilaksanakan tergantung
situasi dan kondisi
E.
Ragu-ragu untuk mengajukan suatu ide kegiatan karena akan kecewa jika tidak diterima
18
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tes toefl
TOEFL Practice Test
Table of Contents
Section 1: Listening.......................................................................
3
Listening: Part A.........................................................................
3
Listening: Part B.........................................................................
7
Section 2: Structure ..................................................................... 15
Section 3: Reading....................................................................... 18
Answer Key................................................................................. 30
Section 1: Listening
The Listening section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and
talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the
speakers you hear. Do not take notes.
Listening: Part A
In this part you will see short conversations between two people. Choose the best answer
to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the
speakers.
1.
Woman: Pardon me. Do you know what time that this store opens?
Man: I do not, but I believe that it is written on the door.
Narrator: What does the man imply that the woman should do?
a.
Look on the door
b.
Open the door
c.
Ask someone else
d.
Come back later
2.
Woman: I am going to buy Johnny a toy train for his birthday.
Man: Are you sure he’d like one?
Narrator: What does the man imply?
a.
Johnny loves toy trains
b.
Johnny already has too many toy trains
c.
Johnny said he wants a toy train
d.
Johnny may prefer something else
3.
Man: I need some shampoo for my hair.
Woman: All of the shampoo is in the back of the store on the third shelf.
Narrator: What will the man probably do?
a.
Walk out of the store
b.
Buy the shampoo
c.
Come back later
d.
Go to another store
4.
Man: Are you going to go to the University of Texas to get your Doctorate?
Woman: I don’t think so.
Man: Why, have you been accepted to any other schools?
Woman: Yes, I have received news of acceptance from LSU, University of
Tennessee, and Harvard.
Narrator: What are the speakers discussing?
a.
The University of Texas
b.
Schools with Doctorate programs
c.
Where the woman will go to school
d.
Who can get accepted to the most schools
5.
Man: I’m really tired on studying for economics every weekend.
Woman: I hear you.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
She has excellent hearing
b.
She has heard the man talk about this frequently
c.
She understands his point of view
d.
She needs to have her ears checked
6.
Man: We are going to get ice cream. Would you like to come with us?
Woman: I am waiting for a package to be delivered.
Narrator: What does the woman imply?
a.
She does not eat ice cream
b.
She has no money
c.
She does not like packages
d.
She will not be going
7.
Woman: Are you going to go to the ball game?
Man: You bet!
Narrator: What does the man mean?
a.
He will place a wager on the ball game
b.
He will definitely go to the ball game
c.
He likes to gamble
d.
He does not like ball games
8.
Man: That’s a nice car.
Woman: I got it almost four years ago.
Man. It looks brand new.
Woman: Yes, it’s in good shape.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
The woman needs a new car
b.
She likes to exercise
c.
She has a new car
d.
The car is in good condition
9.
Man: Did you get you movie passes?
Woman: I spoke to your secretary about it, and she took care of it for me.
Narrator: What does the man mean?
a.
The secretary was responsible for getting the movie passes
b.
The are no movie passes
c.
He has the movie passes
d.
The movie passes are in the mail
10. Man:
How do you like living in America?
Woman: I am used to it know.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
She has always liked living in America
b.
She hates living in America
c.
She is accustomed to living in America
d.
She would rather live in America
11. Woman:
Marie sure likes shopping.
Man: If only she liked doing homework as well!
Narrator: What does the man imply about Marie?
a.
She is very likeable
b.
She does not put much effort into her homework
c.
She goes to the mall everyday
d.
She has a lot of homework
12. Man:
I thought I was supposed to perform the experiment in Room 45.
Woman: No. Ticket 45 is in Room 54.
Narrator: What will the man probably do?
a.
Go to Room 54
b.
Go to Room 45
c.
Buy a ticket
d.
Go home
13. Man:
Did you know that Tracey and Bob are back from their honeymoon to Las
Vegas?
Woman: So they did get married after all.
Narrator: What had the woman assumed about Tracey and Bob?
a.
They were still in Las Vegas
b.
They would not get married
c.
They had a spectacular wedding
d.
They hate Las Vegas
14. Man:
Do you usually take a nap?
Woman: I do now and then.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
She occasionally takes a nap
b.
She always takes a nap
c.
She never takes a nap
d.
She used to take a nap
15. Man:
Can you believe it? I got an A on my Finance exam
Woman: Way to go!
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
She is asking where to go
b.
She wants him to leave her alone
c.
She is congratulating him
d.
She thinks he is a liar
16. Man:
How did the job interview go?
Woman: I could not have been more pleased.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
The interview went very well
b.
The woman did not like the interview
c.
The interview was cancelled
d.
The interview went terrible
17. Man: Do you mind if I turn on some music for a while?
Woman: No, I don’t mind.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
Music will not bother her
b.
She hates listening to music
c.
She wants to think harder
d.
She does not have any music
Listening: Part B
In this part you will see several longer conversations and talks. You should answer each
question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversation or
talks.
Narrator: Listen to a lecture by a biology instructor.
Many people think of gorillas as dangerous killers. One reason for this is that
television and movies often show these animals this way. But gorillas are really gentle
animals.
The gorilla is a vegetarian. It lives in the African rain forests where it finds the
fruits and plants it needs to survive. A large, wild gorilla might eat over 40 pounds of
leaves and fruit in one day.
Unfortunately, these peaceful creatures are in danger of becoming extinct. Each
year, large areas of the rain forests are being cut down. Because there is less and less
food from these forests, the number of wild gorillas is becoming smaller and smaller.
18. The passage describes gorillas as being:
a. Dangerous killers
b. Carnivores
c. TV and movie stars
d. Gentle animals
19. According to the passage, why are gorillas in danger?
a. Because people keep hunting them.
b. Because they eat too much.
c. Because forests get too much rain.
d. Because their food supply is being destroyed.
20. If something is becoming extinct, it is:
a. Becoming lively.
b. Dying out.
c. Growing wild.
d. Getting sick.
Narrator: Listen to the conversation between two graduate students.
Woman: What did you think about the assignment we were supposed to complete for our
statistics class?
Man: I haven’t done mine yet. Is it difficult?
Woman: Kind of. It was full of problems.
Man: Derivative problems?
Woman: Not really, More a review of the whole semester.
Man: Oh.
Woman: It was time consuming.
Man: Really?
Woman. Yes. I started it at about lunch time and didn’t finish it until supper.
Man: I’m surprised at that.
Woman: I was too, I did not expect our professor would give us so much.
Man: He usually doesn’t.
Woman: I know. That is why I was surprised.
Man: Well, I do have some free time this afternoon. Do you know when it is due?
Woman: Tomorrow.
Man: Well, I better get moving.
21. What was on the assignment?
a. Derivative problems
b. A review of the whole semester
c. What was for lunch
d. A surprise
22. What did the students find surprising?
a. The length of the assignment
b. The problems
c. Lunch
d. The professor
23. What did the woman start at lunchtime?
a. The assignment
b. Derivative problems
c. Eating
d. A surprise
24. What will the man probably do next?
a. Eat supper
b. Move out
c. Complete the assignment
d. Ask the woman to supper
Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and a clerk in a college
bookstore.
Man: I need to buy an basic English textbook.
Woman: Okay. What is the course number?
Man: You mean there is more than one
Woman: Sure. We offer Poetry, Writing, and Literature.
Man. If I take Poetry will we write sonnets?
Woman: Not really. The Poetry class is very basic rhyming.
Man: Great. That is what I wanted to hear. How much is that one?
Woman: It’s twenty-nine dollars, plus a ten-dollar notebook fee.
Man: Wait a minute, can’t I just use my own notebook.
Woman: Most students prefer the special poetry notebook, so we made it a requirement.
Man: Okay. I’ll take one Poetry book and notebook. Do you take credit cards?
Woman: Yes, but you don’t have to pay now. Just fill out this form and we will bill you.
Man: Sounds great.
25. What kind of English textbook does the man decide to buy?
a. Writing
b. Literature
c. Poetry
d. Sonnets
26. How much does the Poetry book cost?
a. Twenty-nine dollars
b. Ten-dollars dollars
c. Thirty-nine dollars
d. Twenty-eight dollars
27. Why do the students purchase a poetry notebook?
a. Because they like poetry
b. They are out of paper
c. It is required
d. It makes them feel special
28. How will the man pay for the textbook?
a. With a check
b. With cash
c. With a credit card
d. With an exchange
29. What will the man probably do?
a. Pay now
b. Pay with a bill
c. Go to another store
d. Buy another textbook
Narrator: Listen to part of a lecture in a wetlands ecology class. The professor is talking
about sanderlings.
Urbanization and coastal development has dramatically reduced the beach habitat
available for foraging shorebirds worldwide. This study tested the general hypothesis that
recreational use of shorebird foraging areas adversely affects the foraging behavior of
sanderlings Calidris alba. Observations conducted on two central California beaches from
January through May and September through December of 1999 showed that number and
activity of people significantly reduced the amount of time sanderlings spent foraging.
Although the sample size was low, the most significant negative factor was the presence
of free running dogs on the beach. The experimentally determined minimal approach
distance did not vary significantly with the type of human activities tested. Based on
these results, policy recommendations for minimizing the impact of human beach
activities on foraging shorebirds include: (1) people maintain a minimum distance of 30
m from areas where shorebirds concentrate and (2) strict enforcement of leash laws
Fig. 1
A total of 492 focal birds were observed, of which a sanderling was disturbed by
passing humans on an average of one every 15 min with 96% of those sanderlings
responding to humans at a distance of 30 m or less (Fig. 1). Sanderlings responded to
human activity by either running (42%) or flying (58%). Within the 1-min sampling time,
the disturbed sanderling generally moved once (58%), with 42% moving more than once
due to human disturbance.
30. What hypothesis did this study test?
a.
People maintain a minimum distance from where shorebirds congregate.
b.
Recreational use of shorebird foraging areas conversely affects the foraging
behavior of sanderlings.
c.
Recreational use of shorebird foraging areas adversely affects the foraging
behavior of sanderlings.
d.
Recreational use of shorebird foraging areas adversely affects the foraging
behavior of sanderlings. 42% of shorebirds move due to human disturbance.
31. What percent of responding sanderlings were disturbed by passing humans at a
distance of 10 meters or less?
a.
More than 70 percent
b.
More than 80 percent
c.
Less than 60 percent
d.
Less than 0 percent
32. What are some environmentally sound results to come from this study?
a. Enforcement of leash laws would be effective.
b. Observe Calidris Alba daily.
c. People should maintain a minimum distance of 30 meters from shorebirds.
d. Coastal development has dramatically reduced the beach.
33. This experiment determined that the most significant negative factor to reduce the
amount of time that sanderlings spent foraging was:
a. Humans passing once every 15 minutes.
b. Humans disturbing the sand
c. Sanderlings running or flying
d. Free running dogs
Narrator: Listen to a conversation between a student and a graduate assistant in the
marketing department.
Man: May I help you?
Woman: Hello, My name is Rebecca Smith and I have an appointment Monday at ten
o’clock with Dr. Cudd.
Man: Yes, ten on Monday. I see it here on his planner.
Woman: Well, I was wondering if it would be possible to move my appointment until
later in the afternoon on Monday.
Man: I’m sorry, but Dr. Cudd is tied up in meetings all afternoon.
Woman: Oh.
Man: There is an appointment earlier that morning, if that would help you. Or you could
see him Tuesday afternoon at two.
Woman. No thanks. I’ll just rearrange my schedule.
34. Why did the woman go to the marketing department?
a. To change her appointment time
b. To schedule her appointment
c. To cancel her appointment
d. To rearrange her class schedule
35. What does the man say about Dr. Cudd?
a. He will be out of town Monday
b. He will be rescheduling all Monday appointments for Tuesday
c. He is busy Monday afternoon
d. He is available Monday afternoon
36. What did the graduate assistant offer?
a. To give her an appointment Monday afternoon
b. To give her an appointment Tuesday at two, or earlier Monday
c. To cancel her appointment
d. To give her an appointment next week
37. What did the woman decide to do?
a. Make a new appointment
b. Keep the original appointment
c. Go to the meeting with Dr. Cudd
d. Go to another department
Narrator: Listen to part of a lecture in a macroeconomics class. The professor will be
taking about the indicators business cycle.
Because the business cycle is related to aggregate economic activity, a popular
indicator of the business cycle in the U.S. is the Gross Domestic Product or GDP. The
financial media generally considers two consecutive quarters of negative GDP growth to
indicate a recession. Used as such, the GDP is a quick and simple indicator of economic
contractions. However, the National Bureau of Economic Research (NBER) weighs
GDP relatively low as a primary business cycle indicator because GDP is subject to
frequent revision and it is reported only on a quarterly basis (the business cycle is tracked
on a monthly basis). The NBER relies primarily on indicators such as the following:
• employment
• personal income
• industrial production
Additionally, indicators such as manufacturing and trade sales are used as
measures of economic activity.
38. What is the main topic of this lecture?
a. Gross Domestic Product
b. Indicators of the business cycle
c. National Bureau of Economic Research
d. Employment
39. Which of the following is used as a quick and simple indicator of economic
contractions?
a. Gross Domestic Product
b. Employment
c. Personal Income
d. Industrial Production
40. What is used to indicate a recession?
a. two consecutive quarters of negative growth
b. two consecutive quarters of positive growth
c. four nonconsecutive quarters of negative growth
d. four nonconsecutive quarters of positive growth
41. What is an indicator that the NBER relies upon? Please choose two answers.
a. growth
b. employment
c. product movement
d. personal income
Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and her professor.
Emily: Thank you for letting me speak with you today, Dr. Miller. I would like to talk
with you about my semester average.
Dr. Miller: I see.
Emily: Well to be honest with you, I was upset when I saw my grade. I thought that it
would have been better.
Dr. Miller: Why is that?
Emily: I got an A on my midterm project.
Dr. Miller: I remember how good yours was.
Emily: I received an A on my final exam, but I still received a B in your class.
Dr. Miller: Your grades were very good according to my grade book.
Emily: Can you explain why I received a B instead of an A?
Dr. Miller: Twenty percent of you grade was based on your participation in the class
discussions. Even though you always did well on you assignments, you never added your
opinions or volunteered in class.
Emily: But I tried, I am just shy.
Dr. Miller: I am sorry Emily the syllabus states that everyone must participate in order to
receive there full grade for the class.
42. What event prompted this discussion?
a. Emily’s semester average
b. Emily’s midterm project
c. Emily’s final exam
d. Emily’s participation
43. Where is the conversation most likely occurring?
a. Grocery store
b. Dr. Miller’s office
c. Emily’s office
d. Swimming pool
44. What is the grade that Emily received on her final exam?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
45. Why did Emily receive that grade in the course?
a. Dr. Miller did not like her
b. She was late to class
c. She never did her assignments
d. She did not participate in the class discussions
Section 2: Structure
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English.
1.
The Eiffel Tower ___________ Paris, France.
a.
landmarks
b.
is landmarked in
c.
is a landmark in
d.
is in a landmark
2.
Young deer _________.
a.
are called fawns
b.
be fawns
c.
is fawns
d.
are fawns called
3.
Not until a dog is several months old does it begin to exhibit signs of
independence ___________
.
a.
its mother from
b.
from mother
c.
to mother
d.
from its mother
4.
The Treasury Department a.is take a new look at regulations limiting the b.number
of interest that bank and c.savings, and loan associations d.can pay on deposits.
5.
a.Him should b.be careful with that vase because c.it is very old d.and extremely
fragile.
6.
The repair shop a.keep my cassette player for six weeks before b.returning it,
c.nevertheless, d.it still does not work properly.
7.
To score a goal in soccer you ________.
a.
must kick the ball
b.
must kicks the ball
c.
may kick them ball
d.
must kick them balls
8.
The observation deck at the Sears Tower _________ in Chicago.
a.
is highest than any other one
b.
is highest than any other one
c.
is higher than any other one
d.
is higher that any other one
9. If it _________ so cloudy, we would plan on having the fair outside.
a. was
b. was not
c. weren’t
d. had not
10. At the 1984 Democratic National Convention in San Francisco, Geraldine Ferraro
became the first woman _________ for the vice presidency.
a. to being nominated
b. to has been nominated
c. to have been nominated
d. to will be nominated
11. Pearl Buck, a.a recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize b.for Literature in 1938 c.strove
to bring understanding and peace d.on everyone.
12. In most circumstances a.the person that owns the property b.can claim the rights
c.as money made d.from drilling oil on their property.
13. _______ chocolate will give you a tummy ache.
a. Eat too much
b. Eating to much
c. Eating too much
d. Eating too many
14. If she ____________ to advance her clock one hour, she wouldn’t have been late
for work.
a. should have remembered
b. could remembered
c. remembered
d. would have remembered
15. It a.was obvious from his response in the press conference b.that the candidate
c.prepare his answers d.well.
16. A dream about falling _________.
a. scary is
b. is scary
c. are scary
d. very scary is
17. George Washington _________first U.S. President.
a. was the
b. became
c. were the
d. are the
18. Amelia Earhart was _______________ to pilot her plane across the Atlantic
Ocean.
a. the first and a woman
b. the first woman
c. who the first woman
d. the woman who first
19. a.Crawfish farming b.have been practiced in south Louisiana c.for many d.years.
20. The main purpose a.of this class is to b.help you better understand the c.history of
there country, and how d.it came to be.
21. ____________ a tree can be grown from a seedling.
a. That is generally believed
b. Believed generally is
c. Generally believed it is
d. It is generally believed that
22. The White Rose Bridge, a.which close today, for b.resurfacing will not be c.open
for d.two months.
23. a.When I joined the staff b.of the newspaper, I c.were taught to write short,
powerful d.headlines.
24. a.Since the official school colors b.are red and white, c.all of us d.has worn red and
white to the championship game.
25. The poverty level in the United State is currently set __________________.
a. at 12,000 dollars or less.
b. as 12,000 dollars or less.
c. at 12,000 dollars as less
d. at 12,000 dollar or less.
Section 3: Reading
This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages
similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American
universities and colleges. This section contains reading passages and questions about the
passages.
Leonardo da Vinci was born on April 15, 1452 in Vinci, Italy. He was the
illegitimate son of Ser Piero, a Florentine notary and landlord, but lived on the estate and
was treated as a legitimate son.
In 1483, Leonardo da Vinci drew the first model of a helicopter. It did not look
very much like our modern day “copter,” but the idea of what it could do was about the
same.
Leonardo was an artist and sculptor. He was very interested in motion and
movement and tried to show it in his art. In order to show movement, he found it helpful
to study the way things moved. One subject he liked to study was birds and how they
flew. He spent many hours watching the birds and examining the structure of their
wings. He noticed how they cupped air with their wings and how the feathers helped
hold the air. Through these studies, Leonardo began to understand how birds were able
to fly.
Like many other men, Leonardo began to dream of the day when people would be
able to fly. He designed a machine that used all the things he had learned about flight,
and thus became the first model of a helicopter.
Poor Leonardo had only one problem, however. He had no way to give the
necessary speed to his invention. You see, motors had not yet been invented and speed
was an important part of the flying process. It would be another four hundred years
before the engine was invented and another fifty years before it was put to the test in an
airplane. Leonardo’s dream of a helicopter finally came to pass in 1936.
The Italian painter, sculptor, architect, engineer, and scientist, Leonardo died on
May 2, 1519, and was buried in the cloister of San Fiorentino in Amboise.
1.
What is the author’s main point?
a.
The invention of the helicopter.
b.
Birds cup air with their wings and use feathers to help hold the air.
c.
An overview of one of Leonardo da Vinci’s many skills.
d.
Leonardo da Vinci was born in 1452 and died in 1519.
2. The word problem in paragraph five could best be replaced by the word:
a.
dilemma
b.
mistake
c.
danger
d.
pain
3.
The word it in paragraph two refers to:
a.
Leonardo da Vinci
b.
The first model helicopter
c.
1483
d.
motion and movement
4.
Which paragraph explains why Leonardo’s helicopter was not successful in his
lifetime:
a.
paragraph 1
b.
paragraph 2
c.
paragraph 4
d.
paragraph 5
5.
The word illegitimate in paragraph one is closest in meaning to:
a.
against the law or illegal
b.
not in correct usage
c.
incorrectly deduced; illogical
d.
born out of wedlock
6.
The following sentence would best complete which paragraph? “Since then
people have been living out Leonardo’s dream of flying.”
a.
paragraph 3
b.
paragraph 4
c.
paragraph 5
d.
paragraph 2
7.
What was the main problem with Leonardo’s invention?
a.
motors were not yet invented
b.
the birds lost their feathers
c.
he was illegitimate
d.
he couldn’t draw
8.
The word they in the third paragraph refers to:
a.
the feathers
b.
the birds
c.
the studies
d.
the wings
9.
In what year was the first helicopter flown
a.
1483
b.
1452
c.
1519
d.
1936
10. What two things did birds have that Leonardo da Vinci noticed helped them to
fly?
a.
wings and beaks
b.
feathers and talons
c.
wings and feathers
d.
cups and feathers
11. The word thus in the fourth paragraph could best be replaced by:
a.
Hence
b.
After
c.
Unsuitably
d.
Inappropriately
Glass fibers are extremely strong; for their weight, they are stronger than steel.
They are made by forcing molten glass through tiny holes called spinnerets. As many as
four hundred spinnerets are placed together, and threads of glass much thinner than
human hairs are drawn off at great speed-miles of thread per minute. As they speed
along, the threads are coated thinly with a type of glue and twisted into a yarn.
The glass fibers are used with plastics to make boats and car bodies. They are also
woven into heavy cloth for window draperies and into strong belts for making tires
stronger.
A special kind of glass fiber is causing a revolution in communications. A signal
of light can be made to travel along the fiber for very long distances. By changing the
quality of the light, many messages can be sent at once along one strand of glass. New
office buildings are being “wired” with glass fibers as they are built. The glass fibers will
be used to connect telephones and computers in ways that not long ago were either
impossible or too expensive.
Glass wool traps air in a thick, light blanket of fibers. This blanket is then put
into walls and ceilings to keep warm air in during the winter and cool air in during the
summer.
To make glass wool, molten glass is fed into a spinning drum with many holes in
it. As the glass threads stream out of the holes, they are forced downward by a blast of
hot air and through a spray of glues. The threads are then further blown about to mix
them up as they fall in a thick mat on a moving belt.
The glass we see through and drink out of has many, many other uses besides the ones
described here.
12. What was the author’s main purpose in writing the article?
a.
To inform you how special kinds of glass are made and used
b.
To persuade you to investigate the many uses of glass beyond those
mentioned in the article
c.
To inform you about the strength of glass fibers
d.
To inform you that glue is used to hold strands of glass together
13. The word special in the second paragraph is closets in meaning to:
a.
Distinct among others of a kind
b.
Additional
c.
Common
d.
Species
14. Glass fibers are made by forcing molten glass through:
a.
Spinners
b.
Spiderets
c.
Spinnerets
d.
Spinets
15. The word changing in the second paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a.
Altering
b.
Boring
c.
Bringing
d.
Doing
16. What are glass fibers woven into cloth for?
a.
Draperies
b.
Cars and boats
c.
Glasses
d.
Glue
17. The word fed in the fourth paragraph means:
a.
To give food to
b.
To minister to
c.
To support
d.
To supply
18. The word they in the second sentence of the first paragraph refers to:
a. Human hair
b. Weight
c. Glass fibers
d. Yarn
19. The word it in the fourth paragraph refers to:
a. Molten glass
b. Glass wool
c. Spinning drum
d. Holes
20. The following sentence would best complete which paragraph? “This
improvement in technology is expected to continue.
”
a. Paragraph 1
b. Paragraph 2
c. Paragraph 3
d. Paragraph 4
21. A signal of what can be made to travel along fiber for very long distances?
a. Heat
b. Wave
c. Wool
d. Light
22. The word spray in the fourth paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a. Shower
b. Blow
c. Spit
d. Force
For centuries, people have searched for a way to replace dead and decaying teeth
with comfortable false teeth. Many materials have been used to make a set of false teeth.
The teeth themselves should be made from a hard and durable material. They should be
secured to a soft material, making them easy to wear. In the last two decades, dentists
succeeded in making durable false teeth that are comfortable, too.
Two thousand years ago, the Etruscans made teeth out of animal bone and gold.
These materials were used-with varying degrees of success-up to the 1700’s. When
George Washington was president, ivory from animals such as elephants became a
popular material for false teeth. Doctors and inventors also tried silver, peal, and agate,
but teeth made from these materials were very expensive. Perhaps the most successful
material was porcelain, invented by a Frenchman about two hundred years ago. White,
strong, and resistant to decay, porcelain is still used today for making single teeth.
Besides finding a material for the teeth, inventors also had to find a way to secure
them in a person’s mouth. People tried wire, springs, and many kinds of glue to
accomplish this. In most cases, however, discomfort and a likelihood of the teeth falling
out plagued the person who wore them.
Around 1844, an American dentist named Horace Wells used laughing gas to put
people to sleep before working on their teeth. This innovation made dental work a lot
less painful. Soon after, an inventor created the first form of rubber. This was important
to dentistry because teeth could be attached to the rubber, and the rubber could be molded
to fit the shape of the mouth. With these two developments, dentist could work without
causing pain and could fit teeth more carefully. False teeth have become more available
and comfortable since then, and dentists have continued to improve the making and use
of false teeth.
23. What is the main topic of this passage?
a. Horace Wells
b. False teeth
c. Gold and bone
d. The Etruscans
24. The word they in the first paragraph refers to:
a. Teeth
b. Materials
c. People
d. Dentists
25. The word varying in the second paragraph cold best be replaced by the word:
a. Constant
b. Changeless
c. Fluctuating
d. Stable
26. Porcelain was invented after the first use of:
a. Rubber for holding for holding teeth in place
b. Laughing gas
c. Ivory for making teeth
d. Electric drills
27. When did Horace Wells begin using laughing gas?
a. 1700
b. Two-thousand years ago
c. 1834
d. 1844
28. The word besides in the third paragraph means:
a. In addition to
b. Stand next to
c. Anyway
d. Together
29. The word them in the third paragraph refers to:
a. Teeth
b. Inventors
c. People
d. Wire
30. When was rubber found to be a useful material for false teeth?
a. After laughing gas was used to put patients to sleep
b. While George Washington was president
c. Before a Frenchman invented porcelain
d. While the Etruscans were making teeth of bone and gold
31. The following sentence would best complete which paragraph? “It is
unimaginable what will come next.
”
a. Paragraph 1
b. Paragraph 2
c. Paragraph 3
d. Paragraph 4
32. The word molded in the fourth paragraph means:
a. Formed into a shape
b. To form an organic growth
c. To make an ornament
d. The fitting of a shoe
33. The word resistant in the second paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a. Prone
b. Insusceptible
c. Hearty
d. Sassy
The lens on a camera has only two tasks. First, it must gather in as much light as
possible in order to activate the sensitive chemicals on the film. Second, it must organize
the light rays so that they form a sharp image on the film. These may sound like simple
tasks, but they are not.
One of the sharpest lenses is merely a pinhole in a sheet of cardboard, metal,
plastic, or a similar material. If the pinhole is tiny enough, the image can be quite sharp,
but then very little light is admitted. For most purposes, even the most sensitive film
would take too long to record an image.
A glass lens is much better because it lets in much more light and focuses it on the
film. Yet simple glass lenses are sharpest only in their centers. As more of the lens is
used, the image suffers in sharpness.
One reason a simple lens can cause problems is that it is shaped like a section of a
sphere. Spherical lenses do not focus perfectly on flat film, so the image is slightly
distorted, especially at the edges. Another reason is that the lens can act partly like a
prism. This means that some of the colors in the image will not focus properly, and the
image will be fuzzy.
One solution is to block off all but the sharp-focusing center of the lens. If you
block off the edges of the lens, however, less light will get to the film. Early lenses had
to compromise between sharpness and light-gathering power.
Very sharp lenses that admit as much light as possible can be built by making
them with several separate lenses, or elements. A multiple-element lens has from two to
nine separate lenses. Some elements are cemented together, and some have a gap
between them. Furthermore, the elements are often made of different kinds of glass, each
with a different ability to bend light rays. Some of the elements are there just for
correcting problems caused by the other elements! The results are worth it, though:
pictures can be taken in many different light conditions, and they have a sharpness you
can almost feel.
34. The word it in the first paragraph refers to:
a. Camera
b. Lens
c. Film
d. Chemicals
35. The word distorted in the fourth paragraph means:
a.
Out of a proper or natural relation
b.
Clean and in shape
c.
Purified, as one
d.
Proper
36. In what ways does an image suffer if too large an area of the spherical lens is
used?
a.
The edges of the image become fuzzy
b.
Too much light is admitted
c.
Too little light is admitted
d.
Colors change
37. What is the main disadvantage of a simple lens that is made sharp by using just
the center?
a.
With less light-gathering power, the lens is utterly useless.
b.
With less light-gathering power, the lens is useful only in bright light.
c.
With more light-gathering power, the lens is useful only in dim light.
d.
With more light-gathering power, the lens is utterly useless.
38. The word sharpest in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to:
a.
Having clear form and detail
b.
Terminating in an edge or a point
c.
Intellectually penetrating; astute
d.
Having a thin edge or a fine point suitable for or capable of cutting or
piercing
39. The word it in the fourth paragraph refers to:
a.
Glass lens
b.
Prism
c.
Simple lens
a.
Flat film
40. The word sensitive in the second paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a.
Delicate
b.
Irritable
c.
Reactive
d.
Psychic
41. The word ability in the sixth paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a.
Ignorance
b.
Weakness
c.
Ineptness
d.
Capacity
42. The meaning of the word solution as used in the fifth paragraph is closest in
meaning to:
a.
A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances, which may be solids,
liquids, gases, or a combination of these
b.
The answer to or disposition of a problem
c.
The state of being dissolved
d.
Release; deliverance; discharge
43. What is the minimum number of lenses in multiple-element lens?
a.
Nine
b.
Two
c.
Ninety-two
d.
Twenty-nine
44. The word fuzzy in the fourth paragraph means:
a.
Clear
b.
Unclear
c.
Exact
d.
Precise
45. The word admitted in the sixth paragraph is closest in meaning to:
a.
To permit to enter
b.
To have room for; accommodate
c.
To grant to be real, valid, or true; acknowledge
d.
To make acknowledgment
Answer Key
Section 1: Listening Section 2: Structure Section 3: Reading
1. a. 1. c. 1. a.
2. d. 2. a. 2. a.
3. b. 3. d. 3. b.
4. c. 4. a. 4. d.
5. c. 5. a. 5. d.
6. d. 6. a. 6. c.
7. b. 7. a. 7. a.
8. d. 8. c. 8. b.
9. a. 9. b. 9. d.
10. c. 10. c. 10. c.
11. b. 11. d. 11. a.
12. a. 12. c. 12. a.
13. b. 13. c. 13. a.
14. a. 14. d. 14. c.
15. c. 15. c. 15. a.
16. a. 16. b. 16. a.
17. a. 17. a. 17. d.
Listening Part B 18. b. 18. c.
18. d. 19. b. 19. c.
19. d. 20. c. 20. b.
20. b. 21. d. 21. d.
21. b. 22. a. 22. a.
22. a. 23. c. 23. b.
23. a. 24. d. 24. a.
24. c. 25. a. 25. c.
25. c. 26. c.
26. a. 27. d.
27. c. 28. a.
28. c. 29. a.
29. b. 30. a.
30. a. 31. d.
31. c. 32. a.
32. a. 33. b.
33. d. 34. b.
34. a. 35. a.
35. c. 36. a.
36. b. 37. b.
37. b. 38. a.
38. b. 39. c.
39. a. 40. a.
40. a. 41. d.
41. b. and d. 42. b.
42. a. 43. b.
43. b. 44. b.
44. a. 45. a.
45. d.
Table of Contents
Section 1: Listening.......................................................................
3
Listening: Part A.........................................................................
3
Listening: Part B.........................................................................
7
Section 2: Structure ..................................................................... 15
Section 3: Reading....................................................................... 18
Answer Key................................................................................. 30
Section 1: Listening
The Listening section of the test measures the ability to understand conversations and
talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the
speakers you hear. Do not take notes.
Listening: Part A
In this part you will see short conversations between two people. Choose the best answer
to each question. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the
speakers.
1.
Woman: Pardon me. Do you know what time that this store opens?
Man: I do not, but I believe that it is written on the door.
Narrator: What does the man imply that the woman should do?
a.
Look on the door
b.
Open the door
c.
Ask someone else
d.
Come back later
2.
Woman: I am going to buy Johnny a toy train for his birthday.
Man: Are you sure he’d like one?
Narrator: What does the man imply?
a.
Johnny loves toy trains
b.
Johnny already has too many toy trains
c.
Johnny said he wants a toy train
d.
Johnny may prefer something else
3.
Man: I need some shampoo for my hair.
Woman: All of the shampoo is in the back of the store on the third shelf.
Narrator: What will the man probably do?
a.
Walk out of the store
b.
Buy the shampoo
c.
Come back later
d.
Go to another store
4.
Man: Are you going to go to the University of Texas to get your Doctorate?
Woman: I don’t think so.
Man: Why, have you been accepted to any other schools?
Woman: Yes, I have received news of acceptance from LSU, University of
Tennessee, and Harvard.
Narrator: What are the speakers discussing?
a.
The University of Texas
b.
Schools with Doctorate programs
c.
Where the woman will go to school
d.
Who can get accepted to the most schools
5.
Man: I’m really tired on studying for economics every weekend.
Woman: I hear you.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
She has excellent hearing
b.
She has heard the man talk about this frequently
c.
She understands his point of view
d.
She needs to have her ears checked
6.
Man: We are going to get ice cream. Would you like to come with us?
Woman: I am waiting for a package to be delivered.
Narrator: What does the woman imply?
a.
She does not eat ice cream
b.
She has no money
c.
She does not like packages
d.
She will not be going
7.
Woman: Are you going to go to the ball game?
Man: You bet!
Narrator: What does the man mean?
a.
He will place a wager on the ball game
b.
He will definitely go to the ball game
c.
He likes to gamble
d.
He does not like ball games
8.
Man: That’s a nice car.
Woman: I got it almost four years ago.
Man. It looks brand new.
Woman: Yes, it’s in good shape.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
The woman needs a new car
b.
She likes to exercise
c.
She has a new car
d.
The car is in good condition
9.
Man: Did you get you movie passes?
Woman: I spoke to your secretary about it, and she took care of it for me.
Narrator: What does the man mean?
a.
The secretary was responsible for getting the movie passes
b.
The are no movie passes
c.
He has the movie passes
d.
The movie passes are in the mail
10. Man:
How do you like living in America?
Woman: I am used to it know.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
She has always liked living in America
b.
She hates living in America
c.
She is accustomed to living in America
d.
She would rather live in America
11. Woman:
Marie sure likes shopping.
Man: If only she liked doing homework as well!
Narrator: What does the man imply about Marie?
a.
She is very likeable
b.
She does not put much effort into her homework
c.
She goes to the mall everyday
d.
She has a lot of homework
12. Man:
I thought I was supposed to perform the experiment in Room 45.
Woman: No. Ticket 45 is in Room 54.
Narrator: What will the man probably do?
a.
Go to Room 54
b.
Go to Room 45
c.
Buy a ticket
d.
Go home
13. Man:
Did you know that Tracey and Bob are back from their honeymoon to Las
Vegas?
Woman: So they did get married after all.
Narrator: What had the woman assumed about Tracey and Bob?
a.
They were still in Las Vegas
b.
They would not get married
c.
They had a spectacular wedding
d.
They hate Las Vegas
14. Man:
Do you usually take a nap?
Woman: I do now and then.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
She occasionally takes a nap
b.
She always takes a nap
c.
She never takes a nap
d.
She used to take a nap
15. Man:
Can you believe it? I got an A on my Finance exam
Woman: Way to go!
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
She is asking where to go
b.
She wants him to leave her alone
c.
She is congratulating him
d.
She thinks he is a liar
16. Man:
How did the job interview go?
Woman: I could not have been more pleased.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
The interview went very well
b.
The woman did not like the interview
c.
The interview was cancelled
d.
The interview went terrible
17. Man: Do you mind if I turn on some music for a while?
Woman: No, I don’t mind.
Narrator: What does the woman mean?
a.
Music will not bother her
b.
She hates listening to music
c.
She wants to think harder
d.
She does not have any music
Listening: Part B
In this part you will see several longer conversations and talks. You should answer each
question on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the conversation or
talks.
Narrator: Listen to a lecture by a biology instructor.
Many people think of gorillas as dangerous killers. One reason for this is that
television and movies often show these animals this way. But gorillas are really gentle
animals.
The gorilla is a vegetarian. It lives in the African rain forests where it finds the
fruits and plants it needs to survive. A large, wild gorilla might eat over 40 pounds of
leaves and fruit in one day.
Unfortunately, these peaceful creatures are in danger of becoming extinct. Each
year, large areas of the rain forests are being cut down. Because there is less and less
food from these forests, the number of wild gorillas is becoming smaller and smaller.
18. The passage describes gorillas as being:
a. Dangerous killers
b. Carnivores
c. TV and movie stars
d. Gentle animals
19. According to the passage, why are gorillas in danger?
a. Because people keep hunting them.
b. Because they eat too much.
c. Because forests get too much rain.
d. Because their food supply is being destroyed.
20. If something is becoming extinct, it is:
a. Becoming lively.
b. Dying out.
c. Growing wild.
d. Getting sick.
Narrator: Listen to the conversation between two graduate students.
Woman: What did you think about the assignment we were supposed to complete for our
statistics class?
Man: I haven’t done mine yet. Is it difficult?
Woman: Kind of. It was full of problems.
Man: Derivative problems?
Woman: Not really, More a review of the whole semester.
Man: Oh.
Woman: It was time consuming.
Man: Really?
Woman. Yes. I started it at about lunch time and didn’t finish it until supper.
Man: I’m surprised at that.
Woman: I was too, I did not expect our professor would give us so much.
Man: He usually doesn’t.
Woman: I know. That is why I was surprised.
Man: Well, I do have some free time this afternoon. Do you know when it is due?
Woman: Tomorrow.
Man: Well, I better get moving.
21. What was on the assignment?
a. Derivative problems
b. A review of the whole semester
c. What was for lunch
d. A surprise
22. What did the students find surprising?
a. The length of the assignment
b. The problems
c. Lunch
d. The professor
23. What did the woman start at lunchtime?
a. The assignment
b. Derivative problems
c. Eating
d. A surprise
24. What will the man probably do next?
a. Eat supper
b. Move out
c. Complete the assignment
d. Ask the woman to supper
Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and a clerk in a college
bookstore.
Man: I need to buy an basic English textbook.
Woman: Okay. What is the course number?
Man: You mean there is more than one
Woman: Sure. We offer Poetry, Writing, and Literature.
Man. If I take Poetry will we write sonnets?
Woman: Not really. The Poetry class is very basic rhyming.
Man: Great. That is what I wanted to hear. How much is that one?
Woman: It’s twenty-nine dollars, plus a ten-dollar notebook fee.
Man: Wait a minute, can’t I just use my own notebook.
Woman: Most students prefer the special poetry notebook, so we made it a requirement.
Man: Okay. I’ll take one Poetry book and notebook. Do you take credit cards?
Woman: Yes, but you don’t have to pay now. Just fill out this form and we will bill you.
Man: Sounds great.
25. What kind of English textbook does the man decide to buy?
a. Writing
b. Literature
c. Poetry
d. Sonnets
26. How much does the Poetry book cost?
a. Twenty-nine dollars
b. Ten-dollars dollars
c. Thirty-nine dollars
d. Twenty-eight dollars
27. Why do the students purchase a poetry notebook?
a. Because they like poetry
b. They are out of paper
c. It is required
d. It makes them feel special
28. How will the man pay for the textbook?
a. With a check
b. With cash
c. With a credit card
d. With an exchange
29. What will the man probably do?
a. Pay now
b. Pay with a bill
c. Go to another store
d. Buy another textbook
Narrator: Listen to part of a lecture in a wetlands ecology class. The professor is talking
about sanderlings.
Urbanization and coastal development has dramatically reduced the beach habitat
available for foraging shorebirds worldwide. This study tested the general hypothesis that
recreational use of shorebird foraging areas adversely affects the foraging behavior of
sanderlings Calidris alba. Observations conducted on two central California beaches from
January through May and September through December of 1999 showed that number and
activity of people significantly reduced the amount of time sanderlings spent foraging.
Although the sample size was low, the most significant negative factor was the presence
of free running dogs on the beach. The experimentally determined minimal approach
distance did not vary significantly with the type of human activities tested. Based on
these results, policy recommendations for minimizing the impact of human beach
activities on foraging shorebirds include: (1) people maintain a minimum distance of 30
m from areas where shorebirds concentrate and (2) strict enforcement of leash laws
Fig. 1
A total of 492 focal birds were observed, of which a sanderling was disturbed by
passing humans on an average of one every 15 min with 96% of those sanderlings
responding to humans at a distance of 30 m or less (Fig. 1). Sanderlings responded to
human activity by either running (42%) or flying (58%). Within the 1-min sampling time,
the disturbed sanderling generally moved once (58%), with 42% moving more than once
due to human disturbance.
30. What hypothesis did this study test?
a.
People maintain a minimum distance from where shorebirds congregate.
b.
Recreational use of shorebird foraging areas conversely affects the foraging
behavior of sanderlings.
c.
Recreational use of shorebird foraging areas adversely affects the foraging
behavior of sanderlings.
d.
Recreational use of shorebird foraging areas adversely affects the foraging
behavior of sanderlings. 42% of shorebirds move due to human disturbance.
31. What percent of responding sanderlings were disturbed by passing humans at a
distance of 10 meters or less?
a.
More than 70 percent
b.
More than 80 percent
c.
Less than 60 percent
d.
Less than 0 percent
32. What are some environmentally sound results to come from this study?
a. Enforcement of leash laws would be effective.
b. Observe Calidris Alba daily.
c. People should maintain a minimum distance of 30 meters from shorebirds.
d. Coastal development has dramatically reduced the beach.
33. This experiment determined that the most significant negative factor to reduce the
amount of time that sanderlings spent foraging was:
a. Humans passing once every 15 minutes.
b. Humans disturbing the sand
c. Sanderlings running or flying
d. Free running dogs
Narrator: Listen to a conversation between a student and a graduate assistant in the
marketing department.
Man: May I help you?
Woman: Hello, My name is Rebecca Smith and I have an appointment Monday at ten
o’clock with Dr. Cudd.
Man: Yes, ten on Monday. I see it here on his planner.
Woman: Well, I was wondering if it would be possible to move my appointment until
later in the afternoon on Monday.
Man: I’m sorry, but Dr. Cudd is tied up in meetings all afternoon.
Woman: Oh.
Man: There is an appointment earlier that morning, if that would help you. Or you could
see him Tuesday afternoon at two.
Woman. No thanks. I’ll just rearrange my schedule.
34. Why did the woman go to the marketing department?
a. To change her appointment time
b. To schedule her appointment
c. To cancel her appointment
d. To rearrange her class schedule
35. What does the man say about Dr. Cudd?
a. He will be out of town Monday
b. He will be rescheduling all Monday appointments for Tuesday
c. He is busy Monday afternoon
d. He is available Monday afternoon
36. What did the graduate assistant offer?
a. To give her an appointment Monday afternoon
b. To give her an appointment Tuesday at two, or earlier Monday
c. To cancel her appointment
d. To give her an appointment next week
37. What did the woman decide to do?
a. Make a new appointment
b. Keep the original appointment
c. Go to the meeting with Dr. Cudd
d. Go to another department
Narrator: Listen to part of a lecture in a macroeconomics class. The professor will be
taking about the indicators business cycle.
Because the business cycle is related to aggregate economic activity, a popular
indicator of the business cycle in the U.S. is the Gross Domestic Product or GDP. The
financial media generally considers two consecutive quarters of negative GDP growth to
indicate a recession. Used as such, the GDP is a quick and simple indicator of economic
contractions. However, the National Bureau of Economic Research (NBER) weighs
GDP relatively low as a primary business cycle indicator because GDP is subject to
frequent revision and it is reported only on a quarterly basis (the business cycle is tracked
on a monthly basis). The NBER relies primarily on indicators such as the following:
• employment
• personal income
• industrial production
Additionally, indicators such as manufacturing and trade sales are used as
measures of economic activity.
38. What is the main topic of this lecture?
a. Gross Domestic Product
b. Indicators of the business cycle
c. National Bureau of Economic Research
d. Employment
39. Which of the following is used as a quick and simple indicator of economic
contractions?
a. Gross Domestic Product
b. Employment
c. Personal Income
d. Industrial Production
40. What is used to indicate a recession?
a. two consecutive quarters of negative growth
b. two consecutive quarters of positive growth
c. four nonconsecutive quarters of negative growth
d. four nonconsecutive quarters of positive growth
41. What is an indicator that the NBER relies upon? Please choose two answers.
a. growth
b. employment
c. product movement
d. personal income
Narrator: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and her professor.
Emily: Thank you for letting me speak with you today, Dr. Miller. I would like to talk
with you about my semester average.
Dr. Miller: I see.
Emily: Well to be honest with you, I was upset when I saw my grade. I thought that it
would have been better.
Dr. Miller: Why is that?
Emily: I got an A on my midterm project.
Dr. Miller: I remember how good yours was.
Emily: I received an A on my final exam, but I still received a B in your class.
Dr. Miller: Your grades were very good according to my grade book.
Emily: Can you explain why I received a B instead of an A?
Dr. Miller: Twenty percent of you grade was based on your participation in the class
discussions. Even though you always did well on you assignments, you never added your
opinions or volunteered in class.
Emily: But I tried, I am just shy.
Dr. Miller: I am sorry Emily the syllabus states that everyone must participate in order to
receive there full grade for the class.
42. What event prompted this discussion?
a. Emily’s semester average
b. Emily’s midterm project
c. Emily’s final exam
d. Emily’s participation
43. Where is the conversation most likely occurring?
a. Grocery store
b. Dr. Miller’s office
c. Emily’s office
d. Swimming pool
44. What is the grade that Emily received on her final exam?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
45. Why did Emily receive that grade in the course?
a. Dr. Miller did not like her
b. She was late to class
c. She never did her assignments
d. She did not participate in the class discussions
Section 2: Structure
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English.
1.
The Eiffel Tower ___________ Paris, France.
a.
landmarks
b.
is landmarked in
c.
is a landmark in
d.
is in a landmark
2.
Young deer _________.
a.
are called fawns
b.
be fawns
c.
is fawns
d.
are fawns called
3.
Not until a dog is several months old does it begin to exhibit signs of
independence ___________
.
a.
its mother from
b.
from mother
c.
to mother
d.
from its mother
4.
The Treasury Department a.is take a new look at regulations limiting the b.number
of interest that bank and c.savings, and loan associations d.can pay on deposits.
5.
a.Him should b.be careful with that vase because c.it is very old d.and extremely
fragile.
6.
The repair shop a.keep my cassette player for six weeks before b.returning it,
c.nevertheless, d.it still does not work properly.
7.
To score a goal in soccer you ________.
a.
must kick the ball
b.
must kicks the ball
c.
may kick them ball
d.
must kick them balls
8.
The observation deck at the Sears Tower _________ in Chicago.
a.
is highest than any other one
b.
is highest than any other one
c.
is higher than any other one
d.
is higher that any other one
9. If it _________ so cloudy, we would plan on having the fair outside.
a. was
b. was not
c. weren’t
d. had not
10. At the 1984 Democratic National Convention in San Francisco, Geraldine Ferraro
became the first woman _________ for the vice presidency.
a. to being nominated
b. to has been nominated
c. to have been nominated
d. to will be nominated
11. Pearl Buck, a.a recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize b.for Literature in 1938 c.strove
to bring understanding and peace d.on everyone.
12. In most circumstances a.the person that owns the property b.can claim the rights
c.as money made d.from drilling oil on their property.
13. _______ chocolate will give you a tummy ache.
a. Eat too much
b. Eating to much
c. Eating too much
d. Eating too many
14. If she ____________ to advance her clock one hour, she wouldn’t have been late
for work.
a. should have remembered
b. could remembered
c. remembered
d. would have remembered
15. It a.was obvious from his response in the press conference b.that the candidate
c.prepare his answers d.well.
16. A dream about falling _________.
a. scary is
b. is scary
c. are scary
d. very scary is
17. George Washington _________first U.S. President.
a. was the
b. became
c. were the
d. are the
18. Amelia Earhart was _______________ to pilot her plane across the Atlantic
Ocean.
a. the first and a woman
b. the first woman
c. who the first woman
d. the woman who first
19. a.Crawfish farming b.have been practiced in south Louisiana c.for many d.years.
20. The main purpose a.of this class is to b.help you better understand the c.history of
there country, and how d.it came to be.
21. ____________ a tree can be grown from a seedling.
a. That is generally believed
b. Believed generally is
c. Generally believed it is
d. It is generally believed that
22. The White Rose Bridge, a.which close today, for b.resurfacing will not be c.open
for d.two months.
23. a.When I joined the staff b.of the newspaper, I c.were taught to write short,
powerful d.headlines.
24. a.Since the official school colors b.are red and white, c.all of us d.has worn red and
white to the championship game.
25. The poverty level in the United State is currently set __________________.
a. at 12,000 dollars or less.
b. as 12,000 dollars or less.
c. at 12,000 dollars as less
d. at 12,000 dollar or less.
Section 3: Reading
This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages
similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American
universities and colleges. This section contains reading passages and questions about the
passages.
Leonardo da Vinci was born on April 15, 1452 in Vinci, Italy. He was the
illegitimate son of Ser Piero, a Florentine notary and landlord, but lived on the estate and
was treated as a legitimate son.
In 1483, Leonardo da Vinci drew the first model of a helicopter. It did not look
very much like our modern day “copter,” but the idea of what it could do was about the
same.
Leonardo was an artist and sculptor. He was very interested in motion and
movement and tried to show it in his art. In order to show movement, he found it helpful
to study the way things moved. One subject he liked to study was birds and how they
flew. He spent many hours watching the birds and examining the structure of their
wings. He noticed how they cupped air with their wings and how the feathers helped
hold the air. Through these studies, Leonardo began to understand how birds were able
to fly.
Like many other men, Leonardo began to dream of the day when people would be
able to fly. He designed a machine that used all the things he had learned about flight,
and thus became the first model of a helicopter.
Poor Leonardo had only one problem, however. He had no way to give the
necessary speed to his invention. You see, motors had not yet been invented and speed
was an important part of the flying process. It would be another four hundred years
before the engine was invented and another fifty years before it was put to the test in an
airplane. Leonardo’s dream of a helicopter finally came to pass in 1936.
The Italian painter, sculptor, architect, engineer, and scientist, Leonardo died on
May 2, 1519, and was buried in the cloister of San Fiorentino in Amboise.
1.
What is the author’s main point?
a.
The invention of the helicopter.
b.
Birds cup air with their wings and use feathers to help hold the air.
c.
An overview of one of Leonardo da Vinci’s many skills.
d.
Leonardo da Vinci was born in 1452 and died in 1519.
2. The word problem in paragraph five could best be replaced by the word:
a.
dilemma
b.
mistake
c.
danger
d.
pain
3.
The word it in paragraph two refers to:
a.
Leonardo da Vinci
b.
The first model helicopter
c.
1483
d.
motion and movement
4.
Which paragraph explains why Leonardo’s helicopter was not successful in his
lifetime:
a.
paragraph 1
b.
paragraph 2
c.
paragraph 4
d.
paragraph 5
5.
The word illegitimate in paragraph one is closest in meaning to:
a.
against the law or illegal
b.
not in correct usage
c.
incorrectly deduced; illogical
d.
born out of wedlock
6.
The following sentence would best complete which paragraph? “Since then
people have been living out Leonardo’s dream of flying.”
a.
paragraph 3
b.
paragraph 4
c.
paragraph 5
d.
paragraph 2
7.
What was the main problem with Leonardo’s invention?
a.
motors were not yet invented
b.
the birds lost their feathers
c.
he was illegitimate
d.
he couldn’t draw
8.
The word they in the third paragraph refers to:
a.
the feathers
b.
the birds
c.
the studies
d.
the wings
9.
In what year was the first helicopter flown
a.
1483
b.
1452
c.
1519
d.
1936
10. What two things did birds have that Leonardo da Vinci noticed helped them to
fly?
a.
wings and beaks
b.
feathers and talons
c.
wings and feathers
d.
cups and feathers
11. The word thus in the fourth paragraph could best be replaced by:
a.
Hence
b.
After
c.
Unsuitably
d.
Inappropriately
Glass fibers are extremely strong; for their weight, they are stronger than steel.
They are made by forcing molten glass through tiny holes called spinnerets. As many as
four hundred spinnerets are placed together, and threads of glass much thinner than
human hairs are drawn off at great speed-miles of thread per minute. As they speed
along, the threads are coated thinly with a type of glue and twisted into a yarn.
The glass fibers are used with plastics to make boats and car bodies. They are also
woven into heavy cloth for window draperies and into strong belts for making tires
stronger.
A special kind of glass fiber is causing a revolution in communications. A signal
of light can be made to travel along the fiber for very long distances. By changing the
quality of the light, many messages can be sent at once along one strand of glass. New
office buildings are being “wired” with glass fibers as they are built. The glass fibers will
be used to connect telephones and computers in ways that not long ago were either
impossible or too expensive.
Glass wool traps air in a thick, light blanket of fibers. This blanket is then put
into walls and ceilings to keep warm air in during the winter and cool air in during the
summer.
To make glass wool, molten glass is fed into a spinning drum with many holes in
it. As the glass threads stream out of the holes, they are forced downward by a blast of
hot air and through a spray of glues. The threads are then further blown about to mix
them up as they fall in a thick mat on a moving belt.
The glass we see through and drink out of has many, many other uses besides the ones
described here.
12. What was the author’s main purpose in writing the article?
a.
To inform you how special kinds of glass are made and used
b.
To persuade you to investigate the many uses of glass beyond those
mentioned in the article
c.
To inform you about the strength of glass fibers
d.
To inform you that glue is used to hold strands of glass together
13. The word special in the second paragraph is closets in meaning to:
a.
Distinct among others of a kind
b.
Additional
c.
Common
d.
Species
14. Glass fibers are made by forcing molten glass through:
a.
Spinners
b.
Spiderets
c.
Spinnerets
d.
Spinets
15. The word changing in the second paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a.
Altering
b.
Boring
c.
Bringing
d.
Doing
16. What are glass fibers woven into cloth for?
a.
Draperies
b.
Cars and boats
c.
Glasses
d.
Glue
17. The word fed in the fourth paragraph means:
a.
To give food to
b.
To minister to
c.
To support
d.
To supply
18. The word they in the second sentence of the first paragraph refers to:
a. Human hair
b. Weight
c. Glass fibers
d. Yarn
19. The word it in the fourth paragraph refers to:
a. Molten glass
b. Glass wool
c. Spinning drum
d. Holes
20. The following sentence would best complete which paragraph? “This
improvement in technology is expected to continue.
”
a. Paragraph 1
b. Paragraph 2
c. Paragraph 3
d. Paragraph 4
21. A signal of what can be made to travel along fiber for very long distances?
a. Heat
b. Wave
c. Wool
d. Light
22. The word spray in the fourth paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a. Shower
b. Blow
c. Spit
d. Force
For centuries, people have searched for a way to replace dead and decaying teeth
with comfortable false teeth. Many materials have been used to make a set of false teeth.
The teeth themselves should be made from a hard and durable material. They should be
secured to a soft material, making them easy to wear. In the last two decades, dentists
succeeded in making durable false teeth that are comfortable, too.
Two thousand years ago, the Etruscans made teeth out of animal bone and gold.
These materials were used-with varying degrees of success-up to the 1700’s. When
George Washington was president, ivory from animals such as elephants became a
popular material for false teeth. Doctors and inventors also tried silver, peal, and agate,
but teeth made from these materials were very expensive. Perhaps the most successful
material was porcelain, invented by a Frenchman about two hundred years ago. White,
strong, and resistant to decay, porcelain is still used today for making single teeth.
Besides finding a material for the teeth, inventors also had to find a way to secure
them in a person’s mouth. People tried wire, springs, and many kinds of glue to
accomplish this. In most cases, however, discomfort and a likelihood of the teeth falling
out plagued the person who wore them.
Around 1844, an American dentist named Horace Wells used laughing gas to put
people to sleep before working on their teeth. This innovation made dental work a lot
less painful. Soon after, an inventor created the first form of rubber. This was important
to dentistry because teeth could be attached to the rubber, and the rubber could be molded
to fit the shape of the mouth. With these two developments, dentist could work without
causing pain and could fit teeth more carefully. False teeth have become more available
and comfortable since then, and dentists have continued to improve the making and use
of false teeth.
23. What is the main topic of this passage?
a. Horace Wells
b. False teeth
c. Gold and bone
d. The Etruscans
24. The word they in the first paragraph refers to:
a. Teeth
b. Materials
c. People
d. Dentists
25. The word varying in the second paragraph cold best be replaced by the word:
a. Constant
b. Changeless
c. Fluctuating
d. Stable
26. Porcelain was invented after the first use of:
a. Rubber for holding for holding teeth in place
b. Laughing gas
c. Ivory for making teeth
d. Electric drills
27. When did Horace Wells begin using laughing gas?
a. 1700
b. Two-thousand years ago
c. 1834
d. 1844
28. The word besides in the third paragraph means:
a. In addition to
b. Stand next to
c. Anyway
d. Together
29. The word them in the third paragraph refers to:
a. Teeth
b. Inventors
c. People
d. Wire
30. When was rubber found to be a useful material for false teeth?
a. After laughing gas was used to put patients to sleep
b. While George Washington was president
c. Before a Frenchman invented porcelain
d. While the Etruscans were making teeth of bone and gold
31. The following sentence would best complete which paragraph? “It is
unimaginable what will come next.
”
a. Paragraph 1
b. Paragraph 2
c. Paragraph 3
d. Paragraph 4
32. The word molded in the fourth paragraph means:
a. Formed into a shape
b. To form an organic growth
c. To make an ornament
d. The fitting of a shoe
33. The word resistant in the second paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a. Prone
b. Insusceptible
c. Hearty
d. Sassy
The lens on a camera has only two tasks. First, it must gather in as much light as
possible in order to activate the sensitive chemicals on the film. Second, it must organize
the light rays so that they form a sharp image on the film. These may sound like simple
tasks, but they are not.
One of the sharpest lenses is merely a pinhole in a sheet of cardboard, metal,
plastic, or a similar material. If the pinhole is tiny enough, the image can be quite sharp,
but then very little light is admitted. For most purposes, even the most sensitive film
would take too long to record an image.
A glass lens is much better because it lets in much more light and focuses it on the
film. Yet simple glass lenses are sharpest only in their centers. As more of the lens is
used, the image suffers in sharpness.
One reason a simple lens can cause problems is that it is shaped like a section of a
sphere. Spherical lenses do not focus perfectly on flat film, so the image is slightly
distorted, especially at the edges. Another reason is that the lens can act partly like a
prism. This means that some of the colors in the image will not focus properly, and the
image will be fuzzy.
One solution is to block off all but the sharp-focusing center of the lens. If you
block off the edges of the lens, however, less light will get to the film. Early lenses had
to compromise between sharpness and light-gathering power.
Very sharp lenses that admit as much light as possible can be built by making
them with several separate lenses, or elements. A multiple-element lens has from two to
nine separate lenses. Some elements are cemented together, and some have a gap
between them. Furthermore, the elements are often made of different kinds of glass, each
with a different ability to bend light rays. Some of the elements are there just for
correcting problems caused by the other elements! The results are worth it, though:
pictures can be taken in many different light conditions, and they have a sharpness you
can almost feel.
34. The word it in the first paragraph refers to:
a. Camera
b. Lens
c. Film
d. Chemicals
35. The word distorted in the fourth paragraph means:
a.
Out of a proper or natural relation
b.
Clean and in shape
c.
Purified, as one
d.
Proper
36. In what ways does an image suffer if too large an area of the spherical lens is
used?
a.
The edges of the image become fuzzy
b.
Too much light is admitted
c.
Too little light is admitted
d.
Colors change
37. What is the main disadvantage of a simple lens that is made sharp by using just
the center?
a.
With less light-gathering power, the lens is utterly useless.
b.
With less light-gathering power, the lens is useful only in bright light.
c.
With more light-gathering power, the lens is useful only in dim light.
d.
With more light-gathering power, the lens is utterly useless.
38. The word sharpest in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to:
a.
Having clear form and detail
b.
Terminating in an edge or a point
c.
Intellectually penetrating; astute
d.
Having a thin edge or a fine point suitable for or capable of cutting or
piercing
39. The word it in the fourth paragraph refers to:
a.
Glass lens
b.
Prism
c.
Simple lens
a.
Flat film
40. The word sensitive in the second paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a.
Delicate
b.
Irritable
c.
Reactive
d.
Psychic
41. The word ability in the sixth paragraph could best be replaced by the word:
a.
Ignorance
b.
Weakness
c.
Ineptness
d.
Capacity
42. The meaning of the word solution as used in the fifth paragraph is closest in
meaning to:
a.
A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances, which may be solids,
liquids, gases, or a combination of these
b.
The answer to or disposition of a problem
c.
The state of being dissolved
d.
Release; deliverance; discharge
43. What is the minimum number of lenses in multiple-element lens?
a.
Nine
b.
Two
c.
Ninety-two
d.
Twenty-nine
44. The word fuzzy in the fourth paragraph means:
a.
Clear
b.
Unclear
c.
Exact
d.
Precise
45. The word admitted in the sixth paragraph is closest in meaning to:
a.
To permit to enter
b.
To have room for; accommodate
c.
To grant to be real, valid, or true; acknowledge
d.
To make acknowledgment
Answer Key
Section 1: Listening Section 2: Structure Section 3: Reading
1. a. 1. c. 1. a.
2. d. 2. a. 2. a.
3. b. 3. d. 3. b.
4. c. 4. a. 4. d.
5. c. 5. a. 5. d.
6. d. 6. a. 6. c.
7. b. 7. a. 7. a.
8. d. 8. c. 8. b.
9. a. 9. b. 9. d.
10. c. 10. c. 10. c.
11. b. 11. d. 11. a.
12. a. 12. c. 12. a.
13. b. 13. c. 13. a.
14. a. 14. d. 14. c.
15. c. 15. c. 15. a.
16. a. 16. b. 16. a.
17. a. 17. a. 17. d.
Listening Part B 18. b. 18. c.
18. d. 19. b. 19. c.
19. d. 20. c. 20. b.
20. b. 21. d. 21. d.
21. b. 22. a. 22. a.
22. a. 23. c. 23. b.
23. a. 24. d. 24. a.
24. c. 25. a. 25. c.
25. c. 26. c.
26. a. 27. d.
27. c. 28. a.
28. c. 29. a.
29. b. 30. a.
30. a. 31. d.
31. c. 32. a.
32. a. 33. b.
33. d. 34. b.
34. a. 35. a.
35. c. 36. a.
36. b. 37. b.
37. b. 38. a.
38. b. 39. c.
39. a. 40. a.
40. a. 41. d.
41. b. and d. 42. b.
42. a. 43. b.
43. b. 44. b.
44. a. 45. a.
45. d.
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